The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who is HIV positive. While teaching her about the use of antiretroviral drugs, the nurse explains that these medications will
Treat opportunistic infections
Supplement radiation and chemotherapy
Decrease viral loads in the blood
Cure acute HIV/AIDS infections
The Correct Answer is C
A. Treat opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral drugs do not directly treat opportunistic infections. They help suppress the HIV virus, which in turn strengthens the immune system, reducing the risk of opportunistic infections, but specific infections require separate antimicrobial treatment.
B. Supplement radiation and chemotherapy. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is not used as a supplement to radiation or chemotherapy. While HIV-positive patients can develop certain cancers like Kaposi’s sarcoma, ART is aimed at controlling HIV rather than being a direct cancer treatment.
C. Decrease viral loads in the blood. Antiretroviral drugs work by suppressing HIV replication, thereby decreasing viral load in the bloodstream. This helps maintain immune function, reduces the risk of perinatal transmission, and improves overall health outcomes. Consistent use of ART can even lower viral loads to undetectable levels, significantly reducing transmission risk.
D. Cure acute HIV/AIDS infections. There is no cure for HIV/AIDS. Antiretroviral therapy helps manage the disease by reducing viral replication and preventing progression to AIDS, but it does not eradicate the virus from the body. Lifelong adherence to ART is necessary for disease control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
While many women are able to get pregnant again after an ectopic pregnancy, it is not guaranteed. The ability to conceive again depends on various factors, such as:
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The extent of damage to the fallopian tube.
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Whether one or both tubes are still functional.
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The treatment used (e.g., methotrexate vs. surgery).
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Any underlying fertility issues.
It is important to be honest but reassuring, explaining that many women do go on to have healthy pregnancies, but future fertility can be affected and should be discussed with a healthcare provider. Saying she "absolutely will" get pregnant again is inaccurate and potentially misleading.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor. There is no indication for an internal fetal monitor, as the external monitoring shows a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern with moderate variability and no decelerations. Internal monitoring is typically used when external monitoring is inadequate or when fetal distress is suspected.
B. Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient. There is no fetal distress or abnormal contraction pattern requiring immediate physician intervention. The fetal heart rate is within the normal range (110-160 bpm), and moderate variability indicates adequate oxygenation.
C. Document the finding in the patient's medical record. This is the correct action because the assessment findings indicate a well-oxygenated fetus and a normal labor progression. Contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds are within the expected range for oxytocin augmentation, and no abnormalities are present.
D. Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin). There is no need to stop the oxytocin infusion, as the contraction pattern is appropriate, and there are no signs of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress.
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