A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90

The patient states that her headache is gone

The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds

The patient has had no seizures since delivery

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.

B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.

C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.

D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Uterine prolapse. Uterine prolapse occurs when the uterus descends into or outside the vagina, usually postpartum due to weakened pelvic support. It does not present with sudden, severe pain or fetal heart rate abnormalities during labor.

B. Uterine rupture. A tearing sensation, sudden severe pain, fetal heart rate abnormalities, pallor, and diaphoresis are hallmark signs of uterine rupture. This is a life-threatening emergency where the uterine wall tears, often due to prior cesarean scars, excessive oxytocin use, or grand multiparity. Immediate intervention, including emergency surgery, is required to prevent maternal and fetal death.

C. Precipitous labor. Precipitous labor is rapid labor and delivery within three hours and is not associated with severe, tearing pain. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not typically involve uterine rupture symptoms.

D. Amniotic fluid embolus. An amniotic fluid embolus presents with sudden respiratory distress, hypotension, and cardiovascular collapse due to amniotic fluid entering the maternal circulation. It does not typically cause localized severe abdominal pain or fetal distress due to uterine rupture.

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up B. I will use contraception for the next year C. I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year D. I am so sad that I lost this baby

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up." This statement is incorrect because close follow-up is essential after a molar pregnancy to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) or choriocarcinoma. Regular hCG level monitoring is required weekly until levels are undetectable, then monthly for at least 6–12 months. Delaying follow-up for a year could lead to missed complications.

B. "I will use contraception for the next year." This statement is correct. Pregnancy should be avoided for at least one year after a molar pregnancy to ensure accurate monitoring of hCG levels. A rising hCG level could indicate malignant transformation rather than a new pregnancy.

C. "I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year." This statement is correct. Choriocarcinoma is a potential complication of molar pregnancy, and early detection through serial hCG monitoring is crucial. Any persistent or rising hCG levels may indicate malignancy requiring chemotherapy.

D. "I am so sad that I lost this baby." This statement is understandable. A molar pregnancy is an emotionally distressing event, and feelings of grief and loss are valid. Emotional support, counseling, or support groups may be beneficial for the patient’s mental well-being.

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A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Explanation

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