A patient admitted with possible stroke has been aphasic for 3 hours and has a current blood pressure (BP) of 174/94 mm Hg. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question?
Start a labetalol drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.
Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees.
Begin tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) intravenously per protocol.
Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Start a labetalol drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg: This order is appropriate because it aims to lower the patient's blood pressure to a target range recommended for acute ischemic stroke management.
B. Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees: This intervention is part of stroke management to prevent aspiration and improve cerebral perfusion.
C. Begin tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) intravenously per protocol: The nurse should question this order because tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is contraindicated in patients with stroke who have had symptoms for more than 3 hours or have unknown time of onset, as in this case where the patient has been aphasic for 3 hours. Administering tPA in this situation could increase the risk of bleeding complications without providing benefit.
D. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr: This order is appropriate for maintaining hydration and intravascular volume in the acute care setting.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg: While elevated blood pressure may contribute to the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage, the patient's current BP is not excessively high and may not be the most critical factor in this situation compared to other factors such as anticoagulant use.
B. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension: While the patient's history of hypertension and diuretic use are relevant to their overall health status, they may not be the most immediate concern in the context of intracerebral hemorrhage.
C. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin): This information is crucial as it indicates that the patient is anticoagulated, which can significantly impact the severity and management of intracerebral hemorrhage. Anticoagulant use increases the risk of bleeding and can worsen outcomes in cases of intracranial hemorrhage.
D. The patient's speech is difficult to understand: While difficulty with speech may indicate neurological impairment, it is not as immediately concerning as the patient's anticoagulant use, which increases the risk of bleeding complications and may require specific interventions such as reversal agents.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Call the health care provider if stools are tarry: This instruction is more relevant to medications such as aspirin or NSAIDs, which can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Clopidogrel, while also an antiplatelet medication, is less likely to cause gastrointestinal bleeding compared to aspirin.
B. Clopidogrel will reduce cerebral artery plaque formation: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet
medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the formation of blood clots and potentially slowing the progression of atherosclerosis by preventing further plaque formation.
C. Clopidogrel will dissolve clots in the cerebral arteries: While clopidogrel can help prevent the formation of new clots, it does not actively dissolve existing clots in the cerebral arteries. Its primary mechanism of action is to inhibit platelet aggregation and prevent clot formation.
D. Monitor and record the blood pressure daily: While monitoring blood pressure is important for managing cerebral atherosclerosis and reducing the risk of stroke, it is not directly related to the action of clopidogrel. Blood pressure management may involve lifestyle modifications and other medications but is not specific to clopidogrel administration.
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