A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving reports for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is receiving a blood transfusion and reports low-back pain
A female client who is scheduled for chemotherapy and has an RBC count of 4.0 x105/uL (4.2 to 5.4 x106/uL)
A client who is 24 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate and has small blood clots in the drainage tubing
A client who is 2 days postoperative following placement of an ascending colostomy and has shreds of bloody mucus in the bag
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. A client who is receiving a blood transfusion and reports low-back pain: Low-back pain during a blood transfusion indicates a possible acute hemolytic reaction caused by ABO incompatibility. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate discontinuation of the transfusion and notifying the provider to prevent renal failure and shock.
B. A female client who is scheduled for chemotherapy and has an RBC count of 4.0 x10⁶/µL (4.2–5.4 x10⁶/µL): Although the RBC count is slightly low, this finding is not immediately life-threatening. The provider should be informed, but the client does not require urgent intervention.
C. A client who is 24 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate and has small blood clots in the drainage tubing: Small clots are expected during the first 24 to 36 hours post-TURP due to residual bleeding from the surgical site.
D. A client who is 2 days postoperative following placement of an ascending colostomy and has shreds of bloody mucus in the bag: Small amounts of bloody mucus are normal during the early postoperative phase as the bowel mucosa heals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Acetone breath odor: A fruity or acetone breath odor occurs when the body produces ketones due to fat breakdown in hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). This finding is not associated with hypoglycemia but rather prolonged high blood glucose levels.
B. Polydipsia: Excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a sign of hyperglycemia because the kidneys attempt to excrete excess glucose, leading to dehydration. It does not occur during hypoglycemia, when blood sugar levels are abnormally low.
C. Inability to concentrate: Low blood glucose deprives the brain of its primary energy source, leading to confusion, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. These neuroglycopenic symptoms are hallmark signs of hypoglycemia and can progress to altered consciousness if untreated.
D. Diaphoresis: Sweating is a classic adrenergic response to hypoglycemia as the body releases epinephrine to raise blood glucose levels. It serves as an early warning sign, prompting immediate carbohydrate intake to prevent further decline in blood sugar.
E. Tremors: Tremors occur due to increased sympathetic nervous system activity during hypoglycemia. The body responds to falling glucose by releasing catecholamines, which stimulate muscle activity and cause shaking or trembling sensations.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
Rationale
A. Perform a vaginal examination every 12 hr: Vaginal examinations should be avoided in a client with severe preeclampsia unless delivery is imminent, as they can stimulate uterine activity and increase the risk of placental abruption. Continuous monitoring and noninvasive assessments are prioritized instead.
B. Administer betamethasone: Betamethasone promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating surfactant production when preterm delivery before 34 weeks is anticipated. This reduces the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and intraventricular hemorrhage.
C. Provide a low-stimulation environment: A quiet, dimly lit environment helps minimize CNS stimulation, reducing the risk of seizure activity in clients with severe preeclampsia. Environmental stressors such as bright lights and loud noises should be avoided.
D. Maintain bed rest: Bed rest, particularly in the left lateral position, improves uteroplacental perfusion and reduces blood pressure by minimizing pressure on the vena cava. It also helps limit activity that could elevate BP further.
E. Obtain a 24-hr urine specimen: Collecting a 24-hour urine specimen allows accurate assessment of total protein excretion, which confirms the severity of preeclampsia. Proteinuria greater than 300 mg/24 hr indicates significant renal involvement.
F. Give antihypertensive medication: Antihypertensives such as labetalol or hydralazine help prevent maternal complications like stroke or heart failure from sustained severe hypertension while avoiding excessive BP reduction that could impair uteroplacental blood flow.
G. Monitor intake and output hourly: Close monitoring of intake and output detects early signs of renal compromise or fluid overload, which are common in preeclampsia. Accurate measurement helps guide safe fluid management and prevent pulmonary edema.
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