A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four clients who are 24 to 36 hr postoperative.
Which of the following surgical procedures places the client at risk for deep-vein thrombosis?
Cataract extraction.
Myringotomy.
Laparoscopic appendectomy.
Hip arthroplasty.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Cataract extraction is a minor procedure and does not pose a significant risk for DVT.
Choice B rationale:
Myringotomy, a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear, also does not significantly increase DVT risk.
Choice C rationale:
Laparoscopic appendectomy, while more invasive, still carries a lower DVT risk compared to major orthopedic surgeries.
Choice D rationale:
Hip arthroplasty, a major orthopedic surgery, poses a high risk for DVT due to prolonged immobility and venous stasis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hemorrhagic stroke is characterized by sudden, severe headache, vomiting, and a significant increase in blood pressure, all of which are present in the client. This type of stroke occurs when a weakened blood vessel ruptures and bleeds into the surrounding brain.
Choice B rationale:
Thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that develops in a blood vessel within the brain. It typically presents with less severe symptoms and a gradual onset, not a sudden one.
Choice C rationale:
Embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels to the brain from another part of the body. Like thrombotic stroke, it typically has a more gradual onset.
Choice D rationale:
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent damage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Basal cell carcinoma often presents as a raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders. This is the most common type of skin cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Squamous cell carcinoma typically appears as a firm, red nodule or a flat lesion with a scaly, crusted surface, not a raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders.
Choice C rationale:
Malignant melanoma is usually a large brownish spot with darker speckles, not a raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders.
Choice D rationale:
Actinic keratosis appears as rough, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas of the skin, not a raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders.
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