A nurse l monitoring an IV for a client who is to receive 120 mL of lactated Ringer's over 1 hr. The drip factor on the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should ensure that the drip rate is set for how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

A) Patient Health Questionnaire - 9:
The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a screening tool used to assess the severity of depression in a client. It is not specific to detecting tardive dyskinesia, which is a movement disorder caused by long-term use of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, this tool is not appropriate for assessing tardive dyskinesia.

B) Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale:
The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is the correct tool to screen for tardive dyskinesia. It is specifically designed to assess involuntary movements, such as those seen in tardive dyskinesia, which is a common side effect of long-term use of antipsychotic medications. The AIMS evaluates the presence and severity of abnormal movements, making it the most appropriate tool for this purpose.

C) Mental Status Examination:
The Mental Status Examination (MSE) is a broad assessment used to evaluate a client’s cognitive and emotional functioning. It includes aspects such as appearance, behavior, mood, thoughts, and perception but does not specifically assess for movement disorders like tardive dyskinesia. While it can provide useful information about a client's mental state, it is not focused on detecting motor side effects of antipsychotic medications.

D) Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale:
The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is used to assess the severity of psychiatric symptoms, including delusions, hallucinations, and mood disturbances, primarily in individuals with schizophrenia or other psychiatric disorders. It does not specifically assess for tardive dyskinesia, so it is not the most appropriate screening tool for identifying this condition.

A) The client's meal tray includes ice cream with fresh fruit: Fresh fruit poses a risk to a neutropenic client because it may harbor harmful bacteria or fungi, which could lead to an infection. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system and are more vulnerable to infections, so it is essential to avoid raw or unwashed fruits that can carry harmful pathogens.

B) The client is assigned to a room with negative airflow: A room with negative airflow is a precautionary measure used to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens, particularly for clients with compromised immune systems. This would help reduce the risk of infection by keeping potentially harmful microorganisms from circulating into the room.

C) The client has artificial flowers in the room: While artificial flowers may not pose an immediate risk for infection, they can accumulate dust and other particles that may contribute to a less clean environment. However, they are not as significant a risk factor as the presence of fresh fruits, which can carry live microorganisms capable of causing infections in neutropenic patients.

D) The client's meal tray contains hard boiled eggs: Hard boiled eggs are generally considered safe for neutropenic clients as long as they are properly cooked and stored. Eggs are not a known source of infection in this context, especially when they are cooked and handled properly.