A nurse is teaching participants at a community center about advance directives. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A client must create a do-not-resuscitate order when completing advance directives.
Advance directives cannot be changed once implemented.
Assigning a health care surrogate requires legal consultation.
A health care surrogate makes health care decisions when the client is no longer able.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. A client must create a do-not-resuscitate order when completing advance directives: A DNR is a separate medical order and is not required when completing advance directives. Clients may choose to include resuscitation preferences in their directive but are not obligated to.
B. Advance directives cannot be changed once implemented: Advance directives are flexible documents that can be revised or revoked by the client at any time, as long as the client is mentally competent. This allows clients to adjust their wishes as circumstances or preferences change.
C. Assigning a health care surrogate requires legal consultation: While laws vary by state, in most cases, a legal consultation is not required. Clients can designate a surrogate by completing a form that is often available at healthcare facilities or through state-provided templates.
D. A health care surrogate makes health care decisions when the client is no longer able: A surrogate, also known as a durable power of attorney for health care, steps in only when the client loses decision-making capacity. This ensures that the client’s preferences are respected when they cannot communicate them.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E","F"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Blood pressure: The reading of 162/112 mm Hg meets the criteria for severe hypertension in pregnancy, which increases the risk of complications such as preeclampsia, placental abruption, and stroke.
B. Urine ketones: Ketones are negative, which rules out dehydration or starvation ketosis. Ketones would be more concerning if elevated alongside hyperemesis or gestational diabetes.
C. Fetal activity: Decreased fetal movement at 31 weeks may indicate fetal hypoxia or distress and requires urgent evaluation with nonstress testing or biophysical profiling.
D. Respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range (12–20/min) and does not indicate respiratory distress or a complication.
E. Report of headache: A severe, persistent headache that is unrelieved by acetaminophen is a classic warning sign of central nervous system involvement in preeclampsia and may precede seizures (eclampsia).
F. Urine protein: The presence of 3+ proteinuria indicates significant renal involvement, supporting a diagnosis of preeclampsia, particularly when paired with hypertension and neurologic symptoms.
G. Gravida/parity: While a history of preterm birth is a known risk factor, her current symptoms point toward preeclampsia rather than complications directly linked to her obstetric history.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Administer magnesium sulfate to the client: Magnesium sulfate is typically used for neuroprotection before 32 weeks or to manage preeclampsia; it is not indicated for rupture of membranes at 36 weeks unless there are other risk factors.
B. Administer betamethasone to the client: Betamethasone is used to enhance fetal lung maturity, most beneficial before 34 weeks. At 36 weeks, the lungs are usually mature enough that corticosteroids are not routinely indicated.
C. Monitor the client's temperature every 2 hr: This helps detect early signs of chorioamnionitis, a serious infection risk after membrane rupture, especially with prolonged rupture.
D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 4 hr: Fetal heart monitoring should be more frequent in the presence of membrane rupture to promptly identify signs of distress or infection, not every 4 hours.
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