A nurse is teaching a client about routine prenatal testing, which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You will have a urine test for the herpes simplex virus”
"You will have a rectovaginal culture to test for group B streptococcus."
"You will have a urine test to check for toxoplasmosis”
"You will undergo amniotic fluid sampling to test for cytomegalovirus.”
The Correct Answer is B
A. "You will have a urine test for the herpes simplex virus": Routine prenatal screening does not include urine testing for herpes simplex virus. Testing for HSV is typically done based on symptoms or history, not as a standard prenatal test.
B. "You will have a rectovaginal culture to test for group B streptococcus.": Group B streptococcus screening is a standard prenatal test performed between 35 and 37 weeks of gestation using a rectovaginal swab. Identifying colonization allows for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent neonatal infection.
C. "You will have a urine test to check for toxoplasmosis": Routine urine testing does not screen for toxoplasmosis. Testing for toxoplasmosis is usually done via blood tests in women at high risk, not standard urine tests.
D. "You will undergo amniotic fluid sampling to test for cytomegalovirus.": Amniocentesis for cytomegalovirus is not part of routine prenatal care and is typically only performed if there is a known risk or suspected fetal infection. Standard prenatal tests focus on more common conditions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Withdraw dose of regular insulin: Withdrawing the regular insulin dose is performed after the air has been injected into both vials and the NPH insulin has been drawn up if using the “clear before cloudy” technique. Doing this first would risk disrupting the proper sequence and potentially contaminating the insulin.
B. Inject air into the vial of regular insulin: Air must be injected into the regular insulin vial before withdrawing the medication, but this step is performed after first injecting air into the NPH vial according to the standard procedure for mixing insulins. Starting with the regular insulin vial would not follow the recommended order.
C. Inject air into the vial of NPH insulin: Injecting air into the NPH insulin vial first is the initial step when preparing a mixed insulin dose. This step equalizes pressure inside the vial, allowing for easier withdrawal later, and follows the correct sequence of “air into cloudy first, then clear,” which prevents contamination of the regular insulin.
D. Withdraw dose of NPH insulin: Withdrawing NPH insulin is done after the regular insulin has been drawn into the syringe to maintain the correct “clear before cloudy” technique. Doing this first could result in accidental mixing or contamination of the regular insulin.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G","H","I"]
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest discomfort: These symptoms may indicate acute cardiopulmonary compromise such as pulmonary embolism, acute heart failure, or infection. Sudden dyspnea in a post-op orthopedic client requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent deterioration.
• Tachypnea and appearance of distress: Rapid, labored breathing indicates the client is struggling to maintain adequate oxygenation and may signal hypoxemia or respiratory failure. Immediate follow-up is necessary to prevent further compromise.
• Crackles heard in bilateral lungs: Bilateral crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the alveoli, possibly from pulmonary edema or early pneumonia. This finding correlates with respiratory distress and requires prompt evaluation.
• S3 and S4 heart sounds noted: Extra heart sounds can indicate left ventricular dysfunction or volume overload, suggesting acute heart failure. Timely assessment is critical to prevent worsening cardiac output and pulmonary congestion.
• Temperature 38.9° C (102° F): Fever indicates possible infection, which in a post-operative patient could suggest pneumonia, surgical site infection, or sepsis. Early recognition and treatment are essential.
• Heart rate 112/min: Tachycardia may be a compensatory response to hypoxia, fever, or fluid overload. Persistent elevation increases cardiac workload and risk of decompensation.
• Respiratory rate 34/min: A significantly elevated respiratory rate confirms respiratory distress and inadequate oxygenation, warranting immediate intervention such as supplemental oxygen adjustment or further diagnostics.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Client is awake and oriented x4: The client’s alertness and orientation indicate that cerebral perfusion and cognitive function are intact at this time. While this is important to note, it does not indicate acute cardiopulmonary compromise or a life-threatening event, so it does not require immediate follow-up.
• Surgical site is dressed, dry, and intact: The dressing being clean, dry, and intact indicates there is currently no active bleeding or wound complication. While ongoing monitoring is important post-operatively, this finding does not necessitate urgent intervention compared with the client’s acute respiratory and cardiovascular symptoms.
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