A nurse is reviewing the preoperative note for a 68-year-old adult client who is scheduled to have a right anterior total hip arthroplasty in the preoperative area.
Based on the information in the Nurses' Notes, complete the following sentences from the lists of options provided.
The client most likely has a
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
The nurse must identify the client's highest risk factors for perioperative complications. While the client is currently in the preoperative area for a hip arthroplasty due to osteoarthritis, their specific medical history places them at an elevated priority for the development of a Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Total hip arthroplasty is a high-risk procedure for venous thromboembolism (VTE), and this client's history of recurring clots significantly increases the likelihood of a repeat event during or after surgery.
Rationales:
Deep vein thrombosis: This is the priority condition for monitoring and prophylaxis in this scenario. The client has a documented history of DVT on two separate occasions. Surgery, particularly orthopedic surgery on the lower extremities, causes venous stasis and vessel injury, which combined with the client's history, creates a high-risk profile for VTE.
History of DVT: This is a direct indicator of the client's predisposition to venous clotting. Previous episodes of DVT are the strongest predictor for future occurrences, especially when undergoing a major surgery like a total hip arthroplasty that involves significant immobility.
History of multiple DVTs: The fact that the client has a history of two separate DVTs reinforces the priority of this condition. It suggests a chronic or recurring susceptibility to clotting that requires aggressive perioperative management, such as mechanical prophylaxis (sequential compression devices) and pharmacological anticoagulation.
Pulmonary embolus: While a pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening complication of DVT, there is no evidence in the notes (such as acute chest pain or shortness of breath) to suggest it is currently occurring. It is a potential consequence rather than a condition evidenced by the current preoperative notes.
Osteoarthritis flare: While the client has painful hip osteoarthritis, this is the reason for the surgery, not a priority complication to be identified from the medical history for perioperative safety.
GERD exacerbation: The client's GERD is controlled with an antacid PRN. While important for preoperative fasting (NPO) considerations, it is not a priority condition compared to the risk of vascular complications like DVT.
Chest pain and Dyspnea: These are symptoms of an active pulmonary embolism or cardiac event. Neither is mentioned in the 0630 nurses' notes, so they cannot serve as evidence for the client's current status.
Recent surgery: The client is currently preparing for surgery. While past surgeries are noted, "recent surgery" typically refers to the immediate postoperative period as a risk factor, rather than the historical hysterectomy or appendectomy.
Smoking history: While a 52-pack-year history is significant for respiratory and vascular health, the client quit 2 years ago. While it contributes to general risk, it is less specific to the immediate priority of DVT than the direct history of having had multiple clots.
Immobility risk: The client's BMI of 30.1 and the nature of hip surgery contribute to immobility, which is a risk factor. However, the history of previous DVTs is a more specific piece of "evidence" from the notes that points to the priority condition of recurrent DVT.
Anticoagulant use: The notes mention hypertension and cholesterol meds but do not explicitly list current anticoagulant use. If they were on them, it would be a management factor, but it is not listed as evidence in the provided note.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","F"]
Explanation
This question tests knowledge of silver sulfadiazine, a topical antimicrobial used in burn care. Understanding its mechanism, application techniques, and properties is necessary to evaluate the accuracy of the client's statements regarding its use and therapeutic effects.
Choice A rationale
Silver sulfadiazine is typically applied in a thin layer and may be left open to air or covered with a light dressing. Instructing that a dressing should never be used is incorrect and clinically inaccurate.
Choice B rationale
Silver sulfadiazine is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent. Its primary purpose is to prevent and treat sepsis in second-degree and third-degree burns by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms that could lead to systemic or local infection.
Choice C rationale
The medication should be applied to burned areas requiring antimicrobial protection. Applying the cream specifically to open areas prevents unnecessary skin irritation on intact skin while providing targeted treatment to vulnerable, damaged tissues prone to bacterial colonization.
Choice D rationale
Old ointment should be removed before reapplying a new layer, but a tongue blade is used for application, not removal. Removal is generally done by gentle cleansing with water or saline to avoid trauma.
Choice E rationale
Silver sulfadiazine is a white, water-soluble cream. It is not dark in color and is easily removed with water. The statement that it cannot be removed with water indicates a misunderstanding of the product's properties.
Choice F rationale
Silver sulfadiazine has effective antimicrobial properties against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, as well as yeast such as Candida albicans. This broad coverage makes it a standard choice for burn wound management..
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This scenario requires understanding of integumentary integrity and burn wound management. Knowledge of infection prevention and moist wound healing principles is essential. Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and dermis, necessitating protection of the newly exposed, vulnerable basement membrane to facilitate re-epithelialization.
Choice A rationale
. Antimicrobials prevent colonization of exposed dermis while nonadherent dressings maintain a moist environment. This facilitates cellular migration and prevents further trauma during future dressing changes. Protecting the bed from environmental pathogens is critical for healing and preventing secondary infection.
Choice B rationale
. Air exposure causes desiccation of the wound bed, which leads to cell death and delayed healing. Dry environments promote eschar formation, increasing the risk of scarring. Maintaining a moist interface is the gold standard for promoting rapid dermal repair.
Choice C rationale
. Dry gauze adheres to the wound exudate and causes significant tissue damage during removal. Tight application can also impair local capillary circulation, leading to ischemia. Dressings should be applied loosely enough to ensure adequate perfusion to the healing tissue.
Choice D rationale
. Intact blisters serve as a biological dressing, protecting the underlying dermis from infection. Removing them prematurely exposes the wound bed unnecessarily to the external environment. They should only be debrided if they are large enough to impede joint movement.
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