A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who has cancer and is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Acetaminophen

Insulin gargine

Ondansetron

Naloxone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Acetaminophen: This is a common pain reliever and fever reducer. Acetaminophen is often used alongside other medications, including opioids like morphine, to manage pain more effectively. It's typically safe to use with morphine and is not an immediate concern for clarification.

B. Insulin glargine: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. While it's important to monitor blood sugar levels in patients receiving opioids, especially if they have diabetes, insulin glargine itself doesn't directly interact with morphine or the PCA pump.

C. Ondansetron: Ondansetron is an anti-nausea medication commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly associated with chemotherapy or surgery. Patients receiving morphine, especially those with cancer, may also be prone to nausea. Ondansetron helps manage this side effect and does not typically interact adversely with morphine.

D. Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to rapidly reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, caused by drugs like morphine. It's administered in emergency situations to counteract the potentially life-threatening effects of opioids. While naloxone is critical for opioid safety, its presence on the medication list requires clear understanding and specific instructions regarding its use, dosage, and administration protocols in case of opioid-related emergencies.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Anxiety disorder: Anxiety disorder is generally not a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. However, it's essential to consider the overall health of the individual and potential interactions with medications used to manage anxiety.
B. History of deep-vein thrombosis (Correct Answer): A history of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a significant contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives. Estrogen-containing contraceptives can increase the risk of blood clot formation, and individuals with a history of DVT are at an elevated risk for thrombotic events.
C. Ovarian cysts: Ovarian cysts alone are not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. In fact, oral contraceptives are sometimes prescribed to help regulate menstrual cycles and prevent the formation of certain types of ovarian cysts.
D. Client age of 36 years: Age alone is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives. However, as women age, especially beyond 35 years, healthcare providers may consider other risk factors such as smoking, hypertension, and cardiovascular health when prescribing oral contraceptives.

A. Absence of deep-tendon reflexes B. Urine output 80 mL in 4 hr C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Report of chills E. Systolic blood pressure 130 mm/Hg

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A. Absence of deep-tendon reflexes:
Absence of deep-tendon reflexes is a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate, when infused in high doses, can lead to neuromuscular blockade and affect reflexes. Discontinuing the infusion and administering calcium gluconate can counteract the effects of magnesium.

B. Urine output 80 mL in 4 hours:
Urine output is not a direct indicator of magnesium toxicity. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function, but it is not a specific sign of magnesium toxicity.

C. Decreased level of consciousness:
Decreased level of consciousness is another sign of magnesium toxicity. Central nervous system depression is a potential adverse effect of elevated magnesium levels. Administering calcium gluconate can help antagonize the effects of magnesium.

D. Report of chills:
Chills are not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. This symptom may indicate other issues, such as infection or discomfort.
E. Systolic blood pressure 130 mm/Hg:
Systolic blood pressure within a normal range is not a sign of magnesium toxicity. Blood pressure changes are not typically the primary indicators of magnesium toxicity.

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A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who has cancer and is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of magnesium sulfate for preterm labor. The nurse should discontinue the infusion and prepare to administer calcium gluconate if the client demonstrates which of the following findings? (Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

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