A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is to start taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to prednisone therapy?
Prior episode of kidney stones
Taking levothyroxine orally
Has a systemic fungal infection
History of asthma
The Correct Answer is C
A. Prior episode of kidney stones: A history of kidney stones is not a contraindication to prednisone therapy. However, it may require monitoring due to potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with corticosteroid use.
B. Taking levothyroxine orally: Taking levothyroxine orally is not a contraindication to prednisone therapy. However, concurrent use of corticosteroids and levothyroxine may require dosage adjustments of both medications due to potential interactions.
C. Has a systemic fungal infection: Corticosteroids like prednisone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of fungal infections and worsening existing fungal infections.
Therefore, the presence of a systemic fungal infection is a contraindication to corticosteroid therapy.
D. History of asthma: Asthma is not a contraindication to prednisone therapy. In fact, prednisone is commonly used as a treatment for asthma exacerbations. However, caution may be needed in individuals with asthma to avoid exacerbating symptoms or complications.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Insomnia: Pioglitazone is not typically associated with insomnia as an adverse effect.
Insomnia is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or certain medical conditions.
B. Fluid retention: Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, can cause fluid retention as an adverse effect. This can lead to peripheral edema and exacerbation of heart failure, particularly in
susceptible individuals. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of fluid retention, such as peripheral edema and weight gain, is essential.
C. Tinnitus: Tinnitus is not a commonly reported adverse effect of pioglitazone. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications such as certain antibiotics, NSAIDs, and ototoxic drugs.
D. Orthostatic hypotension: Orthostatic hypotension is not typically associated with pioglitazone.
It is more commonly associated with medications that affect blood pressure regulation, such as antihypertensives and alpha-blockers.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Leg tenderness: Leg tenderness can be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately for further evaluation and management to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism.
B. Cramps: Mild cramps are a common side effect of oral contraceptives and do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or persistent.
C. Nausea: Nausea is a common side effect of oral contraceptives, especially during the initial weeks of use. It usually improves over time and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it is severe or persistent.
D. Abdominal bloating: Abdominal bloating is a common side effect of oral contraceptives and is usually mild and self-limiting. It does not typically require immediate reporting unless it is severe or persistent.
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