A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for magnesium hydroxide. Which of the following conditions should the nurse report to the provider?

Metabolic acidosis

Renal failure

Gastroesophageal reflux

Constipation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Metabolic acidosis: Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and laxative that typically does not exacerbate metabolic acidosis. This condition does not require immediate notification.

B. Renal failure: Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and impaired renal function increases the risk of hypermagnesemia, which can cause serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The provider should be notified before administration.

C. Gastroesophageal reflux: Magnesium hydroxide is often used to relieve symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is an appropriate indication, not a contraindication.

D. Constipation: Constipation is another common indication for magnesium hydroxide use, and it does not require notifying the provider before administration.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Ginkgo biloba: Ginkgo biloba can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin by inhibiting platelet aggregation and enhancing anticoagulant effects. Concurrent use requires careful monitoring or avoidance to prevent serious hemorrhagic events.

B. Probiotics: Probiotics generally do not affect coagulation or interfere with warfarin therapy. They are considered safe for concurrent use and primarily support gut health.

C. Coenzyme Q10: Coenzyme Q10 may actually reduce the effectiveness of warfarin by promoting clotting, but it does not directly increase bleeding risk. Monitoring may be required, but it is not strictly contraindicated.

D. Valerian: Valerian is primarily a sedative and does not have significant anticoagulant effects. It does not directly interact with warfarin, although clients should be monitored for additive CNS depression if used with other sedatives.

A. Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for pain B. Acetaminophen 500 mg every 4 hr PRN for fever C. Simvastatin 40 mg PO at bedtime D. Levothyroxine 100 mcg PO every morning

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for pain: This prescription is complete, specifying the medication, dose, route, frequency, and indication (pain). No clarification is needed before administration.

B. Acetaminophen 500 mg every 4 hr PRN for fever: This prescription lacks a specified route, such as PO (by mouth) or IV. Without the route, the order is incomplete and could result in administration errors, requiring clarification from the provider.

C. Simvastatin 40 mg PO at bedtime: This prescription is appropriate as simvastatin is typically administered orally at bedtime when cholesterol synthesis peaks. It includes all required components.

D. Levothyroxine 100 mcg PO every morning: This order is correct and includes the appropriate dose, route, and timing. Levothyroxine is routinely administered orally in the morning on an empty stomach.

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A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for magnesium hydroxide. Which of the following conditions should the nurse report to the provider?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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