A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an adolescent female client and notes a WBC count of 16,000/mm² with increased immature neutrophils (bands) and normal monocytes. Which of the following is the appropriate analysis of the results?
An acute infectious process.
A resolving inflammatory process.
Allergic reaction.
Neutropenia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
An increased WBC count with increased bands (immature neutrophils) indicates an acute infectious process. Normal range for WBC is 4,500-11,000/mm².
Choice B rationale:
A resolving inflammatory process would typically show a decreasing WBC count.
Choice C rationale:
An allergic reaction would typically show an increase in eosinophils, not neutrophils.
Choice D rationale:
Neutropenia is a decrease in neutrophils, not an increase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of severely dilute urine, leading to dehydration.
Choice B rationale:
Bradycardia is not a typical finding in diabetes insipidus.
Choice C rationale:
Polyphagia (excessive hunger) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
Choice D rationale:
Hyperglycemia is a symptom of diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Indwelling urinary catheters can actually increase the risk of UTIs.
Choice B rationale:
Offering the bedpan every 2 hours may not be necessary or practical for all patients.
Choice C rationale:
Cleaning the perineum from back to front can introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, increasing UTI risk.
Choice D rationale:
Adequate hydration can help flush bacteria out of the urinary tract, reducing UTI risk.
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