A nurse is reviewing a client’s cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds.
Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying
Atrial fibrillation.
Complete heart block
First-degree atrioventricular block
Premature atrial complexes
The Correct Answer is C
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Hip arthroplasty 1 week ago.
Alteplase is a drug that dissolves blood clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin. It can be used for acute ischemic stroke, but it has some contraindications that depend on the indication and the type of administration of the drug. Some common contraindications for alteplase are hypersensitivity, active internal bleeding, history of intracranial hemorrhage, bleeding disorders, and high blood pressure. Other contraindications may vary depending on the specific condition and the time window of treatment. Alteplase can cause serious or fatal bleeding as a side effect.
Choice A is wrong because family history of malignant hypertension is not an absolute contraindication for alteplase, although uncontrolled hypertension (>185 mmHg SBP or >110 mmHg DBP) is.
Choice C is wrong because chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for alteplase, although it may increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.
Choice D is wrong because acute renal failure 6 months ago is not a contraindication for alteplase, although current use of direct thrombin inhibitors or direct factor Xa inhibitors is.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are <120/80 mmHg for normal, 120-129/<80 mmHg for elevated, 130-139/80-89 mmHg for stage 1 hypertension, and ≥140/≥90 mmHg for stage 2 hypertension.
Normal ranges for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood.
Normal ranges for INR are 0.8 to 1.2 for people who are not taking blood thinners and 2 to 3 for people who are taking warfarin.
Normal ranges for aPTT are 25 to 35 seconds for people who are not taking blood thinners and 46 to 70 seconds for people who are taking heparin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The nurse should determine if the client’s health care surrogate is aware of the risks and benefits of the procedure. A health care surrogate is a person who is authorized to make health care decisions for a client who is unable to do so. The nurse has a legal and ethical responsibility to ensure that the client’s surrogate has given informed consent for the surgery, which means that they have received adequate information about the procedure, its purpose, its risks, its benefits, and its alternatives.
Choice A is wrong because sending the unsigned informed consent form to the facility’s risk manager does not ensure that the client’s surrogate has given informed consent. The risk manager is not involved in the consent process and cannot authorize the surgery without the surrogate’s consent.
Choice B is wrong because ensuring that the client’s family supports the provider’s decision for surgery is not the same as obtaining informed consent from the surrogate.
The family may have different opinions or preferences than the surrogate, and the surrogate may not agree with the provider’s decision. The nurse should respect the surrogate’s autonomy and authority to make decisions for the client.
Choice C is wrong because determining if the procedure is medically necessary for the client is not the nurse’s role.
The provider is responsible for determining the medical necessity of the surgery and explaining it to the surrogate. The nurse should not question or interfere with the provider’s judgment unless there is evidence of negligence or malpractice.
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