A nurse is reviewing a client's prescription for terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr for 24 hr PRN more than four uterine contractions per hour. How should the nurse interpret this prescription?

The nurse should administer terbutaline each time the client has more than four contractions in hr

The nurse should begin administering terbutaline every 4 hr for 24 hr

The nurse should administer terbutaline once every 24 hr to prevent the client from having more than four contractions per hour.

The nurse should wait until the client has more than four contractions in 1 hr before administering terbutaline.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) The nurse should administer terbutaline each time the client has more than four contractions in an hour: This interpretation is incorrect because the prescription is for PRN (as needed) administration based on the occurrence of more than four uterine contractions per hour, not every time the client has more than four contractions. The medication should not be administered automatically at each instance of more than four contractions, but rather when it is specifically indicated as per the prescribed instructions.

B) The nurse should begin administering terbutaline every 4 hr for 24 hr: This interpretation is not accurate because the prescription does not state that terbutaline should be given regularly every 4 hours regardless of the client's condition. Instead, it specifies that terbutaline should be administered as needed (PRN) only when the client has more than four uterine contractions per hour. Routine administration every 4 hours is not appropriate unless specified in the prescription.

C) The nurse should administer terbutaline once every 24 hr to prevent the client from having more than four contractions per hour: Administering terbutaline on a fixed schedule every 24 hours is not consistent with the prescription. The prescription specifically indicates that terbutaline is only to be administered as needed (PRN) when the client is experiencing more than four contractions per hour.

D) The nurse should wait until the client has more than four contractions in 1 hr before administering terbutaline: This interpretation aligns with the prescription. Terbutaline is to be administered only when the client has more than four uterine contractions in one hour, and this should be done on a PRN basis. The medication is intended to manage excessive uterine activity, and its administration should be based on the client's current condition (i.e., the presence of more than four contractions per hour), not preemptively or on a regular schedule.

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Correct Answer is ["167"]

Explanation

Given:

Total volume to be infused: 1,000 mL

Infusion time: 6 hours

Step 1: Calculate the infusion rate:

Infusion rate (mL/hr) = Total volume (mL) / Infusion time (hr)

Step 2: Substitute the values:

Infusion rate (mL/hr) = 1,000 mL / 6 hr

Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate:

Infusion rate (mL/hr) = 166.6666667 mL/hr

Step 4: Round to the nearest whole number:

Infusion rate (mL/hr) ≈ 167 mL/hr

A. Ketorolac 10mg PO every 6hr PRN pain B. Ciprofloxacin 1000mg daily C. 0.45 % sodium chloride 1000mL-125mL/hr by continuous IV infusion D. Magnesium hydroxide 60mL PO at bedtime

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Ketorolac 10mg PO every 6hr PRN pain: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used for pain management after cesarean birth. However, it should not be used for more than 5 days due to potential renal side effects, gastrointestinal bleeding, and ulceration risks. A prescription for this drug 10mg every 6 hours could be appropriate if within the 5-day limit.

B) Ciprofloxacin 1000mg daily: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic often prescribed for certain infections. In a postoperative client, it might be prescribed for a urinary tract infection or another bacterial infection. The dose of 1000mg daily is within normal therapeutic ranges for many conditions, and there is no immediate reason to clarify it in the context of routine postoperative care.

C) 0.45% sodium chloride 1000mL-125mL/hr by continuous IV infusion: This IV fluid prescription specifies a normal saline solution at a moderate infusion rate of 125mL/hr, which is generally appropriate for postoperative fluid management. The administration of fluids is essential to prevent dehydration, maintain hydration, and promote healing in the postoperative period.

D) Magnesium hydroxide 60mL PO at bedtime: Magnesium hydroxide is commonly used as a laxative or antacid, but giving 60mL at bedtime raises a concern. Magnesium hydroxide has a significant laxative effect and can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and excessive bowel movement. It is contraindicated in clients with impaired renal function, which is often a concern postoperatively, particularly in clients who may not be eating or drinking adequately. Additionally, in the immediate postoperative period following a cesarean, using a laxative in such a high dose could exacerbate the risk of discomfort, bloating, or diarrhea, and may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication for it.

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A nurse is reviewing a client's prescription for terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr for 24 hr PRN more than four uterine contractions per hour. How should the nurse interpret this prescription?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.45% sodium chloride 1.000 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr to a postpartum client. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["167"]

Explanation

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is 24 hr postoperative following a cesarean birth. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the charge nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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