A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is postpartum and receiving warfarin for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"Take 650 milligrams of aspirin for leg discomfort."
"You should not take oral contraceptives while taking this medication."
"You will be able to stop taking this medication in 2 weeks."
"Use a disposable razor for shaving while taking this medication."
The Correct Answer is B
- Rationale for A: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially when combined with warfarin, an anticoagulant. Therefore, taking aspirin for leg discomfort is not recommended as it can exacerbate bleeding risks.
- Rationale for B: Oral contraceptives can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin and increase the risk of thrombotic events. Women taking warfarin, especially in the postpartum period, should avoid oral contraceptives due to the potential for increased blood clotting.
- Rationale for C: The duration of warfarin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis is typically longer than 2 weeks. It is determined by the physician based on the extent of the clot and the patient's response to the medication.
- Rationale for D: Using a disposable razor can help minimize the risk of cuts and subsequent bleeding, which is a concern when taking anticoagulants like warfarin. It is a safer alternative to other shaving methods that may cause skin abrasions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Chronic hypertension is a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Pregnant clients with pre-existing high blood pressure are at increased risk for developing this condition, which can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby.
B. Maternal age of 30 years is not considered a high-risk factor for preeclampsia. Advanced maternal age (35 years and older) is more commonly associated with an increased risk.
C. The third pregnancy alone is not a risk factor for preeclampsia. First pregnancies or a history of preeclampsia in previous pregnancies are more relevant risk factors.
D. A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal weight range and is not associated with an increased risk of preeclampsia. Obesity or a high BMI is more closely linked to the development of preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Nausea is a common side effect of terbutaline but does not typically require urgent reporting. It can be managed with supportive care or adjustments in therapy.
B. Crackles in the lungs are a serious side effect of terbutaline, which can cause pulmonary edema due to fluid retention. This finding indicates a potential adverse reaction that must be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.
C. Dizziness can occur with terbutaline use but is not as immediately concerning as other potential side effects. It may be managed by adjusting the dose or monitoring the client.
D. Tremors are a common and less severe side effect of terbutaline, typically caused by its beta-adrenergic effects. While they are uncomfortable, they are not an immediate concern compared to more severe reactions.
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