A nurse is reinforcing teaching to the guardians of a 4-year-old child about the expected reactions of immunizations. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
"Your child could develop hives."
"Your child could become hyperactive."
"Your child could experience tenderness at the injection site."
"Your child could have a temperature over 102.2 degrees Fahrenheit."
The Correct Answer is C
Immunizations stimulate the immune system to develop protection against specific infectious diseases. After vaccination, mild and short-term reactions are common as the body mounts an immune response. These expected effects are generally self-limiting and indicate normal immune activation rather than complications. Guardians should be taught which reactions are normal and which require medical attention to ensure safe post-vaccination care.
Rationale:
A. Developing hives is not an expected reaction and may indicate a hypersensitivity or allergic reaction to the vaccine or its components. Hives are suggestive of an immune-mediated response that requires prompt medical evaluation rather than routine post-immunization care.
B. Hyperactivity is not a recognized reaction to immunizations. Behavioral changes such as hyperactivity are not associated with vaccine administration. Expected responses are typically localized discomfort or mild systemic symptoms, not significant behavioral alterations.
C. Tenderness at the injection site is an expected and common local reaction following immunization. This occurs due to localized inflammation as the immune system responds to the vaccine. Mild pain, redness, or swelling at the injection site is normal and typically resolves within a few days without intervention.
D. A temperature over 102.2°F is not considered a typical or expected response to routine immunizations. Although a low-grade fever may occur, high fever suggests a more significant reaction or possible infection that requires medical evaluation. Guardians should be advised to report high or persistent fevers to the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Delirium is a sudden change in mental status characterized by confusion, disorientation, and altered attention. It is often reversible and typically caused by an underlying medical condition rather than a primary psychiatric disorder. Common triggers include infections, metabolic imbalances, medications, and acute illness, especially in older adults. Identifying and treating the underlying cause is essential to resolving delirium.
Rationale:
A. Hypersomnia is not a recognized risk factor for delirium, although sleep disturbances may occur as a symptom once delirium develops. Delirium is more commonly associated with acute physiological stressors rather than isolated sleep pattern changes. Therefore, hypersomnia does not directly contribute to its onset.
B. Amyloid plaque is associated with Alzheimer’s disease, which is a chronic neurodegenerative disorder rather than an acute condition. Although dementia increases vulnerability to delirium, amyloid plaque itself is not an acute risk factor. Delirium develops due to sudden physiological disturbances, not long-term structural brain changes alone.
C. Urinary tract infection is a common precipitating factor for delirium, especially in older adults. Infections trigger systemic inflammatory responses that affect brain function, leading to confusion and altered cognition. Even mild infections can significantly impact mental status in vulnerable clients, making this a key risk factor.
D. High cholesterol is a long-term cardiovascular risk factor but is not directly associated with the development of delirium. It contributes to atherosclerosis over time but does not cause acute changes in brain function. Therefore, it is not considered a risk factor for delirium onset.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Advance directives are legal documents that allow clients to communicate their healthcare preferences in the event they become unable to make decisions. A health care proxy designates a person to make medical decisions on the client’s behalf, while a living will outlines specific treatment preferences. These tools support patient autonomy and ensure that care aligns with the client’s wishes. Understanding the flexibility and legal role of a proxy is essential for informed decision-making.
Rationale:
A. “If I have a health care proxy, then I do not need to have a living will.” This is incorrect because a health care proxy and a living will serve different but complementary purposes. A proxy makes decisions on behalf of the client, while a living will provides specific instructions about desired treatments. Clients benefit from having both to ensure clarity in different clinical situations.
B. “Once my health care proxy is in place, I relinquish my right to make my own decisions.” This is incorrect because a health care proxy only becomes active when the client is incapacitated. As long as the client is competent, they retain full authority to make their own healthcare decisions. The proxy does not override the client’s autonomy while they are able to communicate their wishes.
C. “I do not need to name a relative as my designee in my health care proxy.” This is correct because the designated health care proxy does not have to be a family member. The client can choose any trusted individual who understands their values and is willing to advocate for their healthcare preferences. The key requirement is trust and ability to make informed decisions, not family relationship.
D. “My health care proxy designee is not able to sign a consent form on my behalf.” This is incorrect because a designated health care proxy is legally authorized to make healthcare decisions, including providing informed consent, when the client is unable to do so. This includes consenting to procedures, treatments, and interventions based on the client’s wishes or best interests.
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