A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has been treated for alcohol use disorder and is being discharged. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe for relapse prevention?
Librium
Clonidine
Disulfiram
Phenobarbital
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Librium: Librium (chlordiazepoxide) is a benzodiazepine used primarily during alcohol withdrawal to manage symptoms such as anxiety, tremors, or seizures. It is not used for long-term relapse prevention due to the risk of dependence and lack of deterrent effect on alcohol use.
B. Clonidine: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that can help reduce autonomic symptoms during acute alcohol or opioid withdrawal. However, it does not play a role in preventing relapse or deterring future alcohol use.
C. Disulfiram: Disulfiram works by producing unpleasant effects like nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed, thereby discouraging the client from drinking. It is specifically used for relapse prevention in clients who are motivated to remain abstinent and understand the consequences of drinking while on the medication.
D. Phenobarbital: Phenobarbital, a barbiturate, may be used in certain alcohol withdrawal protocols for seizure control or severe withdrawal symptoms. However, it is not used for relapse prevention and carries a high potential for dependence and sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This image shows a newborn with normal skin tone and no visible skin lesions. There are no signs of erythema, pustules, or macules that would suggest erythema toxicum.
B. This image displays multiple small, erythematous macules and papules, especially on the face. These are classic signs of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and harmless rash seen in the first days of life.
C. The newborn in this image has generally red skin, which could be due to normal newborn circulation changes or mild erythema, but it lacks the distinctive papular or pustular rash pattern seen in erythema toxicum.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Severe immunodeficiency: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated in clients with severe immunodeficiency, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or with advanced HIV/AIDS. These individuals cannot mount an appropriate immune response, placing them at risk for vaccine-related complications.
B. Asymptomatic HIV: Clients with asymptomatic HIV and adequate CD4 counts may safely receive the MMR vaccine. It is not contraindicated unless the client is significantly immunocompromised.
C. Mild febrile illness: Mild illnesses, such as low-grade fever or upper respiratory infections, do not contraindicate vaccine administration. The MMR vaccine can still be safely given, as minor illness does not significantly alter vaccine response or increase risks.
D. Egg allergy: Although the MMR vaccine is cultured in chick embryo fibroblasts, it does not contain significant egg protein, and studies have shown it can be safely administered to individuals with egg allergies. An egg allergy is not a valid reason to withhold the vaccine.
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