A nurse is reinforcing teaching about rifampin with a female client who has active tuberculosis.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

"Lifelong treatment with this medication is necessary.”.

"The medication causes amenorrhea if taken along with an oral contraceptive.”.

"You should wear glasses instead of contacts while taking this medication.”.

"A yellow tint to the skin is an expected reaction to the medication.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: Tuberculosis treatment with rifampin typically lasts 6 to 9 months. Lifelong therapy is not required for TB, and unnecessary prolonged use increases the risk of drug resistance and hepatotoxicity.

Choice B rationale: Rifampin induces liver enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. It does not cause amenorrhea, but it necessitates the use of non-hormonal backup contraception.

Choice C rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This can permanently stain soft contact lenses, so clients are advised to wear eyeglasses during the treatment course.

Choice D rationale: A yellow tint to the skin or sclera indicates jaundice, which is a sign of hepatotoxicity. This is a serious adverse effect rather than an expected reaction and must be reported immediately.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Tolerance to nitroglycerin is not indicated by the presence of a headache. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve angina, and headaches can be a common side effect.

Choice B rationale:

Allergic reactions to nitroglycerin are rare, and a headache is not a typical symptom of an allergy to this medication.

Choice C rationale:

"A headache is a common adverse effect of this medication, but it will probably occur less often over time.”. This is the correct response. Nitroglycerin commonly causes headaches due to its vasodilatory effects. Patients often experience this side effect initially, but it tends to improve or occur less frequently with continued use. The nurse should educate the client about this and reassure them that the headaches should diminish over time.

Choice D rationale:

Anxiety may exacerbate chest pain, but it is not the likely cause of the headache. It is important to address the headache as a potential side effect of the medication.

A. Captopril. B. Metoprolol. C. Furosemide. D. Digoxin.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Captopril.

Choice A: Captopril Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a persistent, non-productive cough. This cough occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a potent peptide that can induce coughing.

Choice B: Metoprolol Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, it is not typically associated with a non-productive cough.

Choice C: Furosemide Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention (edema) in people with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or a kidney disorder. While it can cause side effects like diarrhea, constipation, and loss of appetite, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Furosemide.

Choice D: Digoxin Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and irregular heartbeat. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Digoxin.

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A nurse is reinforcing teaching about rifampin with a female client who has active tuberculosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse administered nitroglycerin sublingually to a client who has angina pectoris and experienced chest pain.The client states that his chest pain is relieved but now he has a headache.Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure. The client states she has recently been bothered by a non-productive cough. Which of the following medications should the nurse associate with the non-productive cough?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is reinforcing teaching about rifampin with a female client who has active tuberculosis.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?