A nurse is providing care for a client who is at risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Keep lights turned to medium level in the evening.

Maintain the head of the bed between 30 and 45°.

Administer hypotonic intravenous solutions.

Reposition the client every shift.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A Reason:

Keeping lights turned to medium level in the evening is incorrect. This intervention is aimed at reducing environmental stimuli, which may be appropriate for some patients with neurological conditions to minimize sensory overload and promote rest. However, it is not a specific intervention for preventing cerebral aneurysm rupture.

Choice B Reason:

Maintaining the head of the bed between 30 and 45° is correct. Keeping the head of the bed elevated can help reduce intracranial pressure and decrease the risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture or rebleeding in patients with aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage. This position promotes venous drainage from the brain and helps prevent increases in intracranial pressure.

Choice C Reason:

Administering hypotonic intravenous solutions is incorrect. Hypotonic intravenous solutions have a lower osmolarity than blood plasma and can lead to cerebral edema, which may exacerbate intracranial pressure and increase the risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture. Isotonic solutions, such as normal saline (0.9% NaCl) or lactated Ringer's solution, are typically preferred for fluid resuscitation and maintenance in patients at risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture.

Choice D Reason:

Reposition the client every shift is incorrect. Repositioning the client every shift helps prevent complications associated with immobility, such as pressure ulcers, pneumonia, and venous thromboembolism. While important for overall patient care, repositioning alone does not directly address the risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.

Choice B Reason:

Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.

Choice C Reason:

Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.

Choice D Reason:

Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.

A. Muscle strength B. Facial symmetry C. Peripheral pulses D. Vision changes E. Aphasia

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Muscle strength is correct. Assessing muscle strength is essential to determine if there are any neurological deficits or weakness that could indicate a neurological condition or injury. Sudden falls can be indicative of various neurological issues, such as stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Assessing muscle strength helps identify any motor impairments or weakness that could contribute to the fall.

Choice B Reason:

Facial symmetry is correct. Assessing facial symmetry is crucial to identify any signs of facial droop, which could indicate a neurological deficit such as a stroke or Bell's palsy. Facial asymmetry may suggest damage to the facial nerve or other neurological issues.

Choice C Reason:

Peripheral pulses is incorrect. While assessing peripheral pulses is important for evaluating circulation, it may not be the priority assessment in this scenario where the client has suddenly fallen and may be experiencing neurological symptoms. Neurological deficits, such as weakness or changes in facial symmetry, vision, or speech, are more indicative of acute neurological issues like stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), which require immediate attention and intervention. In emergency situations, prioritizing assessments related to potential life-threatening conditions such as neurological deficits takes precedence over assessing peripheral pulses.

Choice D Reason:

Vision changes is correct. Assessing for vision changes is important to identify any visual disturbances or deficits that could contribute to falls or indicate underlying neurological issues such as a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Visual disturbances may include blurriness, double vision, or loss of vision in one or both eyes.

Choice E Reason:

Aphasia is incorrect. Assessing for aphasia, which is the inability to understand or express speech, is essential to identify any language deficits that could indicate a neurological condition such as a stroke. Aphasia may present as difficulty speaking, understanding language, or both.

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A nurse is providing care for a client who is at risk of cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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