A nurse is preparing to assess a client for pulse deficit. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Measure the client's apical pulse while another nurse measures their radial pulse.
After inflation, deflate a blood pressure cuff on the client's arm while palpating their brachial pulse.
Compare the client's carotid pulse while resting to their carotid pulse after standing for 1 min.
Assess both of the client's radial pulses at the same time and compare the quality of pulsations.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Measure the client's apical pulse while another nurse measures their radial pulse: Assessing for a pulse deficit involves comparing the apical and radial pulses simultaneously. A difference between the two indicates that not all heartbeats are reaching peripheral circulation, often seen in arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation.
B. After inflation, deflate a blood pressure cuff on the client's arm while palpating their brachial pulse: This method is used for measuring blood pressure, not for identifying pulse deficits. It does not provide information on the difference between central and peripheral pulse rates.
C. Compare the client's carotid pulse while resting to their carotid pulse after standing for 1 min: This assesses for orthostatic changes, not pulse deficit. Pulse deficit requires comparison of apical and radial pulses, not positional changes in carotid pulse strength or rate.
D. Assess both of the client's radial pulses at the same time and compare the quality of pulsations: Comparing bilateral radial pulses helps detect differences in circulation or vessel obstruction but does not assess for a pulse deficit, which specifically involves apical-radial pulse comparison.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Hypotension: Hypotension is typically associated with decreased preload and low PAWP rather than elevated values. An elevated PAWP reflects increased pressure in the left heart, which does not occur with simple hypotension alone.
B. Hypovolemia: Hypovolemia leads to decreased circulating blood volume, reducing preload and PAWP. It is typically marked by low filling pressures, not elevated wedge pressures.
C. Cardiogenic shock: Although cardiogenic shock can be associated with elevated PAWP due to poor cardiac output and fluid backup, it is not as specific a marker as left ventricular failure, which directly affects PAWP.
D. Left ventricular failure: Elevated PAWP reflects increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary circulation, which is a hallmark of left-sided heart failure. This elevation occurs because the failing left ventricle cannot efficiently pump blood forward.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Sudden muscular contractions: Antipsychotics like haloperidol and chlorpromazine can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including acute dystonia, which manifests as sudden, involuntary muscle contractions typically affecting the face, neck, or back.
B. Orthostatic hypotension: Chlorpromazine, a low-potency typical antipsychotic, often causes orthostatic hypotension due to its alpha-adrenergic blockade, increasing fall risk, especially in older adults or those new to therapy.
C. Anticholinergic effects: These include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Chlorpromazine is particularly known for its anticholinergic side effects due to its action on muscarinic receptors.
D. Tremors: Tremors are part of parkinsonian side effects, another form of EPS commonly caused by haloperidol. They result from dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway.
E. Sedation: Both haloperidol and chlorpromazine can cause sedation. Chlorpromazine is especially sedating due to its histamine (H1) receptor blockade, which depresses the CNS.
F. Increased urination: Not typically associated with these medications. In fact, anticholinergic effects from chlorpromazine more often lead to urinary retention, not increased urination.
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