A nurse is preparing to administer sertraline 50 mg PO once daily to a client who has depressive disorder.

Available is sertraline oral solution 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth.

Use a leading zero if it applies.

Do not use a trailing zero.).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["2.5"]

The correct answer is 2.5 mL. Calculation: Identify the desired dose: 50 mg Identify the available dose: 20 mg/mL Apply the formula: Desired ÷ Available = Volume to administer Calculation: 50 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 2.5 mL

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Psychodrama is a therapeutic approach that uses dramatic role play to help clients gain insight into their feelings and behaviors. However, it may not be the most effective for a client with antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency.

Choice B rationale:

Crisis intervention is a short-term therapy to stabilize a client during an acute crisis. It may not address the long-term needs of a client with antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency.

Choice C rationale:

Dual diagnosis treatment is designed for clients who have a mental health disorder and a substance use disorder. This would be the most appropriate for a client with antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency.

Choice D rationale:

Codependency support groups are typically for family members and friends of individuals with substance use disorders. They may not be the most beneficial for the client themselves.

A. Restrict interactions with other clients B. Document the client's behavior every 2 hr. C. Implement 24-hr one-to-one nursing observation. D. Administer prescribed medication via the IM route.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Restricting interactions with other clients may be necessary in some cases, but it’s not the first precaution to take. The nurse must first ensure the client’s safety.

Choice B rationale:

Documenting the client’s behavior every 2 hr is important, but it’s not the first precaution. The nurse must first ensure the client’s safety.

Choice C rationale:

Implementing 24-hr one-to-one nursing observation is the first precaution the nurse should take. This ensures the client’s safety following an overdose.

Choice D rationale:

Administering prescribed medication via the IM route is not a precaution. It’s a method of medication administration.

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A nurse is preparing to administer sertraline 50 mg PO once daily to a client who has depressive disorder. Available is sertraline oral solution 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.).

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who has antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency. The nurse should encourage the client to participate in which of the following groups? .

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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