A nurse is preparing to administer a new prescription for ampicillin 1.5g IV every 6 hr to a client who has an upper respiratory infection. The client also has a prescription for a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Select all that apply.)
Verify the prescription.
Administer the medication at 1000, 1400, 1800, and 2200.
Assess the client for an allergy to penicillin
Document giving the medications
Obtain a sputum for culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E
The nurse should plan to take the following actions:
A.Verify the prescription: Before administering any medication, the nurse must verify the prescription to ensure accuracy, appropriateness, and that it matches the provider's order.
Regarding option B, administering the medication at 1000, 1400, 1800, and 2200 may not be appropriate. The prescription states that ampicillin should be administered every 6 hours. The nurse should administer the medication at equally spaced intervals throughout the day. If the medication is prescribed every 6 hours, the appropriate administration times would be 0600, 1200, 1800, and 2400. However, the question does not provide sufficient information to determine the exact administration times, so option B cannot be definitively selected.
C. Assess the client for an allergy to penicillin: Since ampicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client for any history of allergies to penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics. A penicillin allergy could lead to a severe allergic reaction, so it is crucial to identify any potential allergies before administering the medication.
D. Document giving the medications: After administering the ampicillin, the nurse should document the administration in the client's medical record, including the time, dose, route, and any relevant observations or assessments.
E. Obtain a sputum for culture and sensitivity: The client's new prescription for ampicillin may be related to an infection. To ensure appropriate and effective treatment, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is necessary. This will help identify the specific bacteria causing the respiratory infection and determine which antibiotics will be most effective in treating it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Neostigmine is a medication classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. It is commonly used to treat myasthenia gravis and to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents used during surgery. Adverse reactions to neostigmine are related to its cholinergic effects, which result from increased acetylcholine levels in the body.
Let's go through the options:
A. Hypoactive bowel sounds: Neostigmine can actually increase gastrointestinal motility and may cause increased bowel sounds or even diarrhea, not hypoactive bowel sounds. Therefore, hypoactive bowel sounds are not an adverse reaction to neostigmine.
B. Sweating: Sweating is a cholinergic effect and can be an adverse reaction to neostigmine. Increased sweating is a common sign of cholinergic stimulation.
C. Respiratory distress: Respiratory distress can occur as an adverse reaction to neostigmine, particularly if the client has a history of asthma or other respiratory conditions. Neostigmine can cause bronchoconstriction and excessive secretions, leading to respiratory distress.
D. Urinary retention: Neostigmine is actually used to treat urinary retention by increasing bladder contraction. Therefore, urinary retention is not an adverse reaction to neostigmine.
E. Bradycardia: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is a significant adverse reaction to neostigmine due to its cholinergic effects on the heart. Increased acetylcholine levels can lead to excessive stimulation of the vagus nerve, resulting in bradycardia.
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