A nurse is examining a client who is in active labor and observes that the presenting part is in the left occiput posterior position.
What is the clinical interpretation of this finding?
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
The palpability of the posterior fontanel is not related to the position of the fetus.
Choice B rationale
The level of the ischial spines refers to the station of the fetus, not its position.
Choice C rationale
The passage of the largest fetal diameter through the pelvic outlet is a stage of labor, not a fetal position.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct answer. The left occiput posterior position refers to the position of the fetal head.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor. This is to prevent the transmission of the herpes virus to the baby during delivery, which can lead to serious complications such as neonatal herpes, a potentially deadly infection.
Choice B rationale
While sitz baths can help alleviate the discomfort caused by genital herpes lesions, they do not directly protect the fetus from herpes infection. The primary purpose of sitz baths in this context is to provide symptomatic relief to the mother.
Choice C rationale
The newborn will not necessarily be observed and treated in the neonatal intensive care unit just because the mother has genital herpes. The need for neonatal intensive care would depend on various factors, including whether the baby contracts the virus during delivery.
Choice D rationale
Total abstinence from sexual intercourse is not necessary during the entire pregnancy. However, it is recommended to abstain from sexual intercourse during active outbreaks to reduce the risk of transmission.
Choice E rationale
Daily administration of Valacyclovir (Valtrex) is necessary after the 36th week of pregnancy. This is known as suppressive therapy, which can help reduce the risk of an outbreak at the time of delivery and thereby reduce the risk of transmitting the virus to the baby.
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postpartum.
The client is a Gravida 4 Para 3 who had a forceps-assisted birth with epidural anesthesia at 40 weeks of gestation. She had a second degree mediolateral perineal laceration with repair, and the placenta was manually extracted.
The estimated blood loss was 600 mL. Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
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