A nurse is examining a client who is in active labor and observes that the presenting part is in the left occiput posterior position.
What is the clinical interpretation of this finding?
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
The palpability of the posterior fontanel is not related to the position of the fetus.
Choice B rationale
The level of the ischial spines refers to the station of the fetus, not its position.
Choice C rationale
The passage of the largest fetal diameter through the pelvic outlet is a stage of labor, not a fetal position.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct answer. The left occiput posterior position refers to the position of the fetal head.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Avoiding sexual relations for 3 days is not sufficient advice for a client diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). The client should abstain from sexual activity until they and their partner(s) have completed treatment and are symptom-free.
Choice B rationale
Even if a sexual partner has no symptoms, they could still be infected and require treatment. Many STIs can be asymptomatic, meaning they do not show symptoms, but can still be transmitted to others.
Choice C rationale
Returning in 6 months for retesting is a good practice for individuals diagnosed with an STI. Some infections, like chlamydia and gonorrhea, should be retested about 3 months after treatment. Other infections, like HIV, might need a follow-up test 6 months later to confirm the results.
Choice D rationale
The treatment for STIs varies depending on the specific infection. Not all STIs are treated with a single dose of erythromycin. For example, gonorrhea is typically treated with an injection of ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevated blood pressure is a key sign of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys.
Choice B rationale
Increased urine output is not typically associated with preeclampsia. In fact, decreased urine output may be a sign of kidney problems associated with severe preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Vaginal discharge is common during pregnancy and is not typically associated with preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Joint pain is not typically associated with preeclampsia.
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