A nurse is confirming with the client the informed consent signed earlier that day. The client then states, “I have changed my mind and do not want to have the procedure done.” What action should the nurse take?
Remind the client that a signed informed consent form is a legally binding document.
Notify the surgeon that the client wishes to withdraw informed consent for the procedure.
Proceed with preparation of the patient for the surgical procedure.
Inform the surgical team to cancel the client’s surgery.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Reminding the client that a signed informed consent form is a legally binding document is incorrect. Informed consent is based on the principle of patient autonomy, meaning the patient has the right to withdraw consent at any time. The nurse should respect the client’s decision and not pressure them into proceeding with the procedure.
Choice B reason: Notifying the surgeon that the client wishes to withdraw informed consent for the procedure is the appropriate action. The surgeon needs to be informed immediately so that they can discuss the client’s concerns, provide additional information if needed, and respect the client’s decision. This ensures that the client’s autonomy and rights are upheld.
Choice C reason: Proceeding with preparation of the patient for the surgical procedure is not appropriate once the client has withdrawn consent. Continuing with the preparation would violate the client’s rights and could lead to legal and ethical issues. The nurse must halt any further preparation and inform the relevant medical staff of the client’s decision.
Choice D reason: Informing the surgical team to cancel the client’s surgery is a step that may be taken after discussing the withdrawal of consent with the surgeon. The nurse should first notify the surgeon, who will then make the decision to cancel the surgery based on the client’s wishes. Directly informing the surgical team without consulting the surgeon first is not the correct protocol.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Repeating auscultation after asking the client to take a deep breath and cough is the first intervention the nurse should take. This action helps to clear any secretions or mucus that might be causing the crackles. If the crackles persist after the client coughs, it indicates that the sounds are likely due to fluid in the lungs, which requires further assessment and intervention. This step ensures that the nurse accurately identifies the cause of the crackles before proceeding with other interventions.
Choice B Reason:
Instructing the client to limit fluid intake to less than 2,000 mL/day might be appropriate in cases of fluid overload or heart failure, but it is not the first intervention. The nurse needs to confirm the cause of the crackles before making any recommendations about fluid intake. Limiting fluid intake without proper assessment could lead to dehydration and other complications.
Choice C Reason:
Placing the client on bed rest in semi-Fowler’s position can help improve lung expansion and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. However, this is not the first intervention. The nurse should first determine if the crackles are due to secretions that can be cleared by coughing. Semi-Fowler’s position is beneficial for patients with respiratory distress, but it does not address the immediate need to reassess lung sounds.
Choice D Reason:
Preparing to administer antibiotics is not the first intervention. Antibiotics are used to treat infections, and the nurse needs to confirm whether the crackles are due to an infection or another cause before administering medication. Immediate administration of antibiotics without proper assessment could lead to inappropriate treatment and antibiotic resistance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 380 mL indicates oliguria. Oliguria is defined as a urine output of less than 400-500 mL per day in adults. This condition can be caused by various factors, including dehydration, kidney dysfunction, or postoperative complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing kidney function and overall fluid balance, especially after major surgeries like a colon resection.
Choice B Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 550 mL is slightly above the threshold for oliguria. While it is still relatively low, it does not meet the strict criteria for oliguria, which is typically defined as less than 400-500 mL per day. This output suggests that the client is producing an adequate amount of urine, though it may still warrant close monitoring to ensure it does not decrease further.
Choice C Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 600 mL is within the normal range and does not indicate oliguria. Normal urine output for adults is generally considered to be around 800-2000 mL per day, depending on fluid intake and other factors. This output suggests that the client’s kidneys are functioning properly and that there is no immediate concern for oliguria.
Choice D Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 720 mL is also within the normal range and does not indicate oliguria. This output is closer to the lower end of the normal range but still suggests adequate kidney function. It is important to continue monitoring the client’s urine output to ensure it remains within a healthy range, especially after surgery.
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