A nurse is confirming with the client the informed consent signed earlier that day. The client then states, “I have changed my mind and do not want to have the procedure done.” What action should the nurse take?
Remind the client that a signed informed consent form is a legally binding document.
Notify the surgeon that the client wishes to withdraw informed consent for the procedure.
Proceed with preparation of the patient for the surgical procedure.
Inform the surgical team to cancel the client’s surgery.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Reminding the client that a signed informed consent form is a legally binding document is incorrect. Informed consent is based on the principle of patient autonomy, meaning the patient has the right to withdraw consent at any time. The nurse should respect the client’s decision and not pressure them into proceeding with the procedure.
Choice B reason: Notifying the surgeon that the client wishes to withdraw informed consent for the procedure is the appropriate action. The surgeon needs to be informed immediately so that they can discuss the client’s concerns, provide additional information if needed, and respect the client’s decision. This ensures that the client’s autonomy and rights are upheld.
Choice C reason: Proceeding with preparation of the patient for the surgical procedure is not appropriate once the client has withdrawn consent. Continuing with the preparation would violate the client’s rights and could lead to legal and ethical issues. The nurse must halt any further preparation and inform the relevant medical staff of the client’s decision.
Choice D reason: Informing the surgical team to cancel the client’s surgery is a step that may be taken after discussing the withdrawal of consent with the surgeon. The nurse should first notify the surgeon, who will then make the decision to cancel the surgery based on the client’s wishes. Directly informing the surgical team without consulting the surgeon first is not the correct protocol.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Metabolic Alkalosis is correct. The pH of 7.56 is above the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating alkalosis. The HCO3 level of 33 mEq/L is also above the normal range (22-28 mEq/L), which suggests a metabolic cause. In metabolic alkalosis, the body has an excess of bicarbonate or a loss of hydrogen ions.
Choice B Reason:
Metabolic Acidosis is incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (below 7.35) and a low HCO3 level (below 22 mEq/L). The given values indicate alkalosis, not acidosis.
Choice C Reason:
Respiratory Alkalosis is incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH (above 7.45) and a low PaCO2 (below 35 mmHg). In this case, the PaCO2 is elevated (55 mmHg), which does not align with respiratory alkalosis.
Choice D Reason:
Respiratory Acidosis is incorrect. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH (below 7.35) and a high PaCO2 (above 45 mmHg). While the PaCO2 is elevated, the pH indicates alkalosis, not acidosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Securing the oxygen tubing to the bed sheet near the client’s head is not recommended because it can lead to accidental dislodgement of the tubing, which can interrupt the oxygen supply. Additionally, this practice does not address the potential for nasal dryness and irritation that can occur with oxygen therapy. Properly securing the tubing should involve ensuring it is comfortably positioned and not at risk of being pulled or dislodged.
Choice B Reason:
Attaching a humidifier bottle to the base of the flow meter is the correct action because it helps to add moisture to the oxygen being delivered to the client. Oxygen therapy, especially at higher flow rates like 5 L/min, can dry out the nasal passages and mucous membranes, leading to discomfort and potential complications. The humidifier bottle ensures that the oxygen is humidified, which helps to prevent dryness and irritation, making the therapy more comfortable and effective for the client.
Choice C Reason:
Applying petroleum jelly to the nares is not recommended because petroleum-based products can be flammable and pose a risk when used in conjunction with oxygen therapy. Additionally, petroleum jelly can trap bacteria and potentially lead to infections. Instead, water-based lubricants or saline nasal sprays are safer alternatives for soothing dry nasal passages.
Choice D Reason:
Removing the nasal cannula while the client eats is not advisable because it interrupts the continuous delivery of oxygen, which is essential for clients with pneumonia who may already have compromised respiratory function. Instead, the nurse should ensure that the nasal cannula is securely in place and that the client is receiving the prescribed oxygen therapy at all times, including during meals.
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