A nurse is conducting a child maltreatment screening of a family who has a toddler. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indicator of possible child neglect?
The child has a history of jaw fractures.
The child seems frightened of their parent.
The child has had no immunization since birth.
The child rocks back and forth continually.
The Correct Answer is C
A reason: The child has a history of jaw fractures. While a history of fractures may indicate physical abuse, it is not specifically indicative of neglect. Child neglect often involves failure to provide necessary care, not necessarily causing physical injury.
B reason: The child seems frightened of their parent. Fear of a parent can be a sign of abuse or neglect, but it alone is not a definitive indicator of neglect. It requires further investigation to determine the cause of the child's fear.
C reason: The child has had no immunizations since birth. Failure to provide necessary medical care, such as immunizations, is a clear indicator of neglect. It shows a lack of attention to the child's health and well-being.
D reason: The child rocks back and forth continually. Repetitive behaviors like rocking can be a sign of psychological distress or developmental issues but are not specific indicators of neglect. They require further evaluation to understand the underlying cause.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A reason: A client who is experiencing withdrawal from oxycodone. While withdrawal from oxycodone can cause significant symptoms, it is not typically associated with seizures. Other withdrawal symptoms, such as anxiety and agitation, are more common.
B reason: A client who is experiencing withdrawal from diazepam. Withdrawal from diazepam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to seizures, especially if the drug is stopped abruptly. Seizure precautions are necessary to manage this risk and ensure the client's safety.
C reason: A client who has a low lithium level. A low lithium level typically indicates subtherapeutic dosing rather than an immediate risk of seizures. Monitoring for mood symptoms is more relevant in this context.
D reason: A client who has a low imipramine level. Low levels of imipramine, an antidepressant, do not generally pose a risk for seizures. The focus should be on managing depressive symptoms and adjusting medication as needed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A reason: Urinary retention. Urinary retention can occur with these medications, particularly with opioids like hydromorphone, but it is not typically an immediate priority compared to respiratory depression.
B reason: Blurred vision. Blurred vision can be a side effect of medications, but it is not as immediately critical as respiratory function.
C reason: Headache. A headache, while uncomfortable, is not as urgent as respiratory issues when managing clients on these medications.
D reason: Bradypnea. Bradypnea, or slowed breathing, is a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of both diazepam and hydromorphone. It indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's safety.
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