A nurse is collecting data from a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and tells the nurse that she felt light fluttering in her stomach the prior day.
The nurse should use which of the following terms to document this finding?
Quickening.
Lightening.
Braxton Hicks contractions.
Chloasma.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Quickening is the term used to describe the first noticeable fetal movements felt by the pregnant person. It is often described as a fluttering or bubbling sensation in the lower abdomen.
Quickening typically occurs between 16 and 22 weeks of gestation, with an average of 18 weeks. It is a normal and reassuring sign that the pregnancy is progressing well.
The sensation of quickening is caused by the fetus moving its arms and legs, as well as by its body turning and rotating within the amniotic fluid.
It is important to note that not all pregnant women experience quickening at the same time, and some women may not feel it at all.
However, in this case, the client is at 16 weeks of gestation, which is within the typical timeframe for quickening to occur. Moreover, the client's description of "light fluttering in her stomach" is consistent with the sensation of quickening.
Choice B rationale:
Lightening is the term used to describe the descent of the fetus into the pelvis in preparation for labor.
It typically occurs in the last few weeks of pregnancy, and is often accompanied by a feeling of increased pressure in the pelvis and bladder.
The client in this question is only at 16 weeks of gestation, so it is too early for lightening to have occurred.
Choice C rationale:
Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless contractions of the uterus that can occur throughout pregnancy.
They are often described as a tightening or hardening of the uterus, and they may come and go over a period of several hours. Braxton Hicks contractions are not a sign of labor, but they can sometimes be mistaken for it.
The client in this question did not describe any contractions, so Braxton Hicks contractions are not a likely explanation for her symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Chloasma is a skin condition that is characterized by brown patches on the face.
It is also known as the "mask of pregnancy" because it is more common in pregnant women. Chloasma is caused by hormonal changes during pregnancy, and it typically fades after delivery.
The client in this question did not describe any skin changes, so chloasma is not a likely explanation for her symptoms
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A:
Purpose of the Biophysical Profile (BPP): The BPP is a non-invasive test that combines ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring to assess fetal well-being, specifically in the third trimester of pregnancy. It evaluates five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate reactivity. Each parameter is assigned a score of 0 or 2, resulting in a total score of 0 to 10. A score of 8 or 10 is generally considered reassuring of fetal well-being, while a score of 6 or below may warrant further evaluation or intervention.
Timing of BPP: It's typically performed in the third trimester, often after 32 weeks of gestation, when the fetus has developed regular sleep-wake cycles and breathing movements.
Risk Assessment: It's often recommended for pregnancies considered high-risk, such as those with: Maternal diabetes
Preeclampsia
Decreased fetal movement Past stillbirth
Multiple gestation
Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) Post-term pregnancy (over 42 weeks)
Choice B:
IV initiation is not a routine part of BPP: Intravenous (IV) access is not typically required for a BPP. The test involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and ultrasound imaging, which do not necessitate IV access.
Choice C:
NPO status is not necessary: The client does not need to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for a BPP. There are no dietary restrictions or fasting requirements for this test.
Choice D:
BPP does not determine the estimated date of birth: The primary purpose of the BPP is to assess fetal well-being, not to determine the estimated date of delivery (EDD). The EDD is typically established based on the last menstrual period or early ultrasound measurements.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Refrigerating the specimen after collection is not recommended for semen analysis. Cold temperatures can damage sperm motility and viability, leading to inaccurate results. The specimen should be kept at room temperature and transported to the laboratory within 1 hour of collection. This ensures that the sperm are analyzed under conditions that closely resemble their natural environment within the body, providing the most accurate assessment of their health and function.
Choice C rationale:
Allowing the specimen to remain at room temperature for 3 to 4 hours prior to transport is also not advised. While sperm can survive for a limited time outside the body, prolonged exposure to room temperature can also negatively impact their motility and viability. This can compromise the accuracy of the semen analysis results.
Choice D rationale:
Collecting the specimen using a condom with spermicide is strictly prohibited for semen analysis. Spermicides are designed to kill sperm, and their presence in the sample would render the analysis entirely invalid. It's crucial to collect the specimen directly into a sterile container provided by the laboratory to ensure no contaminants interfere with the analysis.
Choice B rationale:
Abstaining from ejaculation for 2 to 3 days prior to the semen analysis is essential for obtaining accurate results. This timeframe allows for optimal sperm concentration and quality within the ejaculate. Frequent ejaculation can deplete sperm reserves, potentially leading to lower sperm counts and reduced motility in the sample. By adhering to the recommended abstinence period, the chances of obtaining a representative and accurate assessment of the patient's semen quality are significantly increased.
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