A nurse is caring for an older adult who lives in a long-term care facility on the Alzheimer unit. Every evening around 5:00 p.m., the resident becomes increasingly agitated and more confused, a state that lasts throughout the evening. The nurse recognizes this behaviour as:
personality disorder.
dementia.
delirium.
sundowning syndrome.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Personality disorder. Personality disorders are long-term patterns of behaviour and inner experiences that deviate significantly from the expectations of the individual's culture. The described behaviour is a specific pattern related to the time of day, not indicative of a personality disorder.
B. Dementia. While dementia is the underlying condition, the specific worsening of symptoms in the evening is known as sundowning syndrome. Dementia alone does not specify the time-related pattern of increased confusion and agitation.
C. Delirium. Delirium is an acute, often sudden change in cognition and attention, usually caused by an underlying medical condition or substance use. The described behavior follows a regular daily pattern, indicating a different issue.
D. Sundowning syndrome. Sundowning syndrome refers to increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening, commonly seen in individuals with Alzheimer's disease or other forms of dementia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Grieving related to loss of son: The recent loss of his son is a significant and primary concern, leading to social withdrawal and other behaviours.
B. Social isolation related to depression: While social isolation is a concern, it stems from the primary issue of grieving.
C. Ineffective coping related to the number of recent losses: Ineffective coping is important but addressing the grieving process is more immediate and central.
D. Hopelessness related to relocation to a nursing home: Hopelessness due to relocation may contribute but is not the immediate primary issue in light of the recent death.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Pityriasis rosea typically starts with a single, larger "herald patch" followed by a rash with smaller, oval spots. The described pattern is characteristic of this condition.
B. Herpes zoster virus or shingles, usually presents with vesicular lesions in a dermatomal distribution, rather than scattered oval spots.
C. Herpes simplex type 1 generally causes oral lesions or cold sores, not the body rash described.
D. Impetigo contagiosa is a bacterial infection that typically causes honey-colored crusted sores and is not described as having a herald patch or oval spots.
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