A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has a history of violent behavior and has asked the nurse to keep confidential information about he desire to kill several classmates and a school teacher. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate to give?
"I can see that you trust me, but you should share those feelings with your psychiatrist, not me."
I will not violate our nurse-client relationship. The information we discuss will remain confidential between us."
"Because you are a minor, I have to share any information that I feel is important with your parents."
"I cannot promise that. I must share this information with other members of the team who are responsible for planning your care,"
The Correct Answer is D
A. "I can see that you trust me, but you should share those feelings with your psychiatrist, not me."
While encouraging the client to discuss their feelings with a mental health professional is important, this response does not address the immediate safety concern presented by the client's intent to harm others.
B. "I will not violate our nurse-client relationship. The information we discuss will remain confidential between us."
This response is inappropriate because it implies that the nurse will keep the information confidential, even though the client's statement raises concerns about the safety of others.
C. "Because you are a minor, I have to share any information that I feel is important with your parents."
While parents may have the right to be informed about their minor child's well-being, this situation goes beyond parental involvement. The nature of the threat requires immediate intervention from appropriate professionals and authorities.
"D. I cannot promise that. I must share this information with other members of the team who are responsible for planning your care."
Explanation: The client's statement about having a desire to harm others, especially classmates and a school teacher, raises significant concerns about the safety and well-being of not only the client but also the potential victims. In cases where the client poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, the nurse has a duty to breach confidentiality to ensure the safety of all involved parties. This response conveys the nurse's ethical obligation to involve other members of the treatment team and appropriate authorities to address the potential threat.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A client exhibiting psychotic behavior
Group therapy is generally not recommended for clients who are actively exhibiting psychotic behavior. Psychotic behavior can include hallucinations, delusions, and severe thought disturbances, which might impede the individual's ability to effectively participate and benefit from group therapy. Such clients often require more immediate and individualized attention to address their acute symptoms.
B. A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression
This is the correct choice. A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression is likely to have their symptoms more stabilized and under better control compared to acute situations. They might be at a stage where they can engage in group therapy to discuss their experiences, coping strategies, and learn from others in a similar situation.
C. A client who is experiencing alcohol intoxication
Group therapy is not appropriate for clients who are currently intoxicated, as their ability to actively participate and engage in therapeutic discussions may be compromised. Addressing the effects of alcohol intoxication and ensuring the client's safety would be a priority before considering group therapy.
D. A client admitted 12 hours ago for acute mania
Clients admitted for acute mania often require stabilization and intervention to manage their manic symptoms. In the early stages of admission, they might not be in a state conducive to group therapy. Once their acute symptoms are better controlled and they have had time to stabilize, they could potentially benefit from group therapy as part of their overall treatment plan.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Regression: Incorrect
Regression is a defense mechanism in which a person reverts to an earlier stage of development in response to stress or anxiety. For example, an adult might start behaving like a child when faced with a difficult situation. In this case, the student berating the teacher doesn't demonstrate a return to an earlier developmental stage, so regression is not the correct choice.
B. Conversion: Incorrect
Conversion refers to the conversion of emotional distress into physical symptoms, such as experiencing physical pain without any apparent physical cause. This mechanism is often seen in conditions like conversion disorder. The student berating the teacher is not exhibiting physical symptoms as a response to emotional distress, so conversion is not the correct choice.
C. Projection: Correct
Projection is the act of attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to another person. In this scenario, the student is projecting their own failure onto the teacher and the course by blaming them for the failure. They are unable to accept their own role in the failure and are instead placing the blame on external factors. This aligns with the behavior described in the scenario.
D. Undoing: Incorrect
Undoing involves trying to compensate for or negate an unacceptable action or thought with a contrary action. For instance, someone who had angry thoughts might engage in excessive acts of kindness to "undo" those thoughts. The student berating the teacher is not engaging in actions to negate their negative feelings or thoughts; they are expressing their frustration directly.
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