A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who reports feeling anxious, irritable, and unable to sleep despite extreme fatigue. The client also expresses feelings of inadequacy as a mother. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate?

Advise the client to seek help from family members to reduce stress and manage the baby's care

Assess the client for further signs of postpartum mood disorders

Reassure the client that these feelings are normal and will subside in a few days

Encourage the client to rest whenever the baby is sleeping to alleviate fatigue

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Advise the client to seek help from family members to reduce stress and manage the baby's care – While social support is helpful, it does not directly address potential postpartum mood disorders, which require further evaluation.

B. Assess the client for further signs of postpartum mood disorders – These symptoms may indicate postpartum depression, which requires further assessment and potential intervention. Early identification is crucial to ensuring the client's safety and well-being.

C. Reassure the client that these feelings are normal and will subside in a few days – While some mood changes are common postpartum ("baby blues"), the intensity of these symptoms may indicate postpartum depression, which requires assessment.

D. Encourage the client to rest whenever the baby is sleeping to alleviate fatigue – While rest is important, it does not address the client's concerns about anxiety, irritability, and feelings of inadequacy, which may signal a mood disorder.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "Depo-Provera."
Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone injection) is effective for contraception, but it may worsen menstrual irregularities and cause bone density loss with long-term use, making it less ideal.

B. "Contraceptive implant."
While progestin-only implants (e.g., Nexplanon) are effective, they do not protect against STIs. Additionally, irregular bleeding is a common side effect, which may not be ideal for someone with menorrhagia and irregular cycles.

C. "Combination oral contraceptives."
Estrogen-containing contraceptives (e.g., combined oral contraceptive pills) are contraindicated in women who smoke and are ≥35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). While this client is 22 years old, smoking still makes this option less preferable.

D. "Barrier methods such as female condoms."
Barrier methods reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which is crucial for this client with multiple sexual partners. Additionally, they do not contain hormones, making them safer for smokers.

A. The client's vaginal pH may increase during menopause B. The client's dietary habits and fluid intake C. The client's genitourinary disorder will be alleviated over time D. The client's history of sexually transmitted infections

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The client's vaginal pH may increase during menopause – During menopause, estrogen levels decrease, leading to a higher vaginal pH. This disrupts the normal vaginal flora, making the client more susceptible to infections and irritation.

B. The client's dietary habits and fluid intake – While nutrition and hydration affect overall health, they are not the primary cause of menopausal vaginal symptoms and infections.

C. The client's genitourinary disorder will be alleviated over time – Without treatment (e.g., vaginal estrogen therapy or lubricants), menopausal atrophic changes usually persist or worsen, rather than resolve over time.

D. The client's history of sexually transmitted infections – While STIs can cause vaginal discomfort, the client’s symptoms are more likely due to menopausal changes rather than a past history of STIs.

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A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who reports feeling anxious, irritable, and unable to sleep despite extreme fatigue. The client also expresses feelings of inadequacy as a mother. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A 56-year-old menopausal woman reports to the registered nurse that she has been experiencing vaginal itching, burning, and an increase in vaginal infections over the past 3 years. What important factor should the nurse consider before responding to the client's concerns?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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