A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for signs of postpartum depression. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of postpartum depression rather than normal postpartum adjustment?

Feeling anxious about the baby's health and well-being, but still able to care for the baby effectively

Experiencing occasional mood swings and irritability while adjusting to the new role of motherhood

Feeling overwhelmed and having difficulty sleeping due to the demands of a newborn

Persistent feelings of sadness, severe fatigue, and loss of interest in activities, including caring for the baby

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Feeling anxious about the baby's health and well-being, but still able to care for the baby effectively
Mild anxiety about the baby’s health is a common experience for new mothers and does not necessarily indicate PPD. It becomes concerning if anxiety becomes overwhelming or interferes with daily functioning.

B. Experiencing occasional mood swings and irritability while adjusting to the new role of motherhood
Mood swings and irritability are normal postpartum adjustments, often due to hormonal changes, sleep deprivation, and new responsibilities. These symptoms typically resolve within a few weeks.

C. Feeling overwhelmed and having difficulty sleeping due to the demands of a newborn
Feeling overwhelmed and sleep disturbances are common in the postpartum period due to frequent infant care needs. However, severe or persistent sleep disturbances, especially with loss of interest in daily activities, may indicate PPD.

D. Persistent feelings of sadness, severe fatigue, and loss of interest in activities, including caring for the baby
Postpartum depression is characterized by prolonged sadness, extreme fatigue, withdrawal, and difficulty bonding with the baby. These symptoms extend beyond normal postpartum blues (which typically resolve within two weeks) and require medical intervention, including therapy and possibly medication.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "Placenta previa usually results in a higher risk of maternal hypertension, while abruptio placentae is commonly associated with a low-risk pregnancy.
This is incorrect because abruptio placentae, not placenta previa, is associated with maternal hypertension (e.g., preeclampsia, chronic hypertension). Placenta previa is not related to blood pressure issues.

B. "Placenta previa is characterized by sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, while abruptio placentae is associated with painless bleeding."
This is incorrect because placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, while abruptio placentae causes sudden, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and possibly dark red bleeding.

C. "Placenta previa typically presents with severe pain and contractions, whereas abruptio placentae involves painless bleeding without contractions."
This is incorrect because placenta previa does not cause pain or contractions. In contrast, abruptio placentae often presents with painful contractions and uterine hypertonicity.

D. "Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, whereas abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall."
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers the cervix (partial or complete), leading to bleeding. Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, which can lead to hemorrhage and fetal distress.

A. 32-week patient with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate B. 9-week client with hyperemesis receiving IV therapy C. 34-week client with no fetal heartbeat D. 38-week client with complete previa

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. 32-week patient with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate – Magnesium sulfate requires close monitoring for toxicity (e.g., respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes), making this client inappropriate for a nurse with no OB experience.

B. 9-week client with hyperemesis receiving IV therapy – This client is the most stable and requires routine care, such as IV fluid administration and antiemetics, making them the best assignment for a new nurse without OB experience.

C. 34-week client with no fetal heartbeat – This client requires significant emotional support and possibly induction of labor, making them inappropriate for a nurse unfamiliar with OB care.

D. 38-week client with complete previa – Placenta previa poses a high risk for hemorrhage, and this client requires close monitoring. A new nurse without OB experience would not be the best choice for this assignment.

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A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for signs of postpartum depression. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of postpartum depression rather than normal postpartum adjustment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the differences between placenta previa and abruptio placentae with a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements accurately differentiates placenta previa from abruptio placentae?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following gravid clients is most appropriate for a charge nurse to assign to a new nurse with no obstetric (OB) experience?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is in preterm labor. The client has a new prescription for betamethasone and asks the nurse about the purpose of this medication. The nurse should provide which of the following explanations?

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client for signs of postpartum depression. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of postpartum depression rather than normal postpartum adjustment?

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