A male client reports to the nurse that he took sildenafil for erectile dysfunction but did not achieve an erection. Which of the following considerations should the nurse evaluate to determine possible reasons for the lack of response?
The client's level of sexual stimulation
If taken with a high fat meal, the medication is more effective
The client's recent consumption of caffeine
If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client's level of sexual stimulation
Sildenafil requires sexual stimulation to be effective. It enhances blood flow to the penis but does not automatically cause an erection. The client should be educated that adequate sexual arousal is necessary for the medication to work.
B. If taken with a high-fat meal, the medication is more effective
Taking sildenafil with a high-fat meal can actually delay its absorption and reduce effectiveness. Clients should be advised to take it on an empty stomach or with a light meal for optimal results.
C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine
Caffeine intake does not interfere with sildenafil’s effectiveness. However, excessive caffeine consumption may contribute to vasoconstriction, which could indirectly affect erectile function.
D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
Taking an extra dose of sildenafil is not recommended and can increase the risk of serious side effects such as hypotension, priapism (prolonged erection), and cardiovascular complications. The client should follow prescribed dosing guidelines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
Correct answers: The nurse's greatest concern is the client's risk of developing HELLP syndrome and related to thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes.
Rationale:
I. HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, and Low Platelets) is a severe form of preeclampsia that can lead to life-threatening complications.
Ii. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) (120,000) increases the risk of bleeding.
Iii. Elevated liver enzymes (ALT 75, AST 78, Alkaline Phosphatase 184) suggest liver involvement, which is a hallmark of HELLP syndrome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Placenta previa usually results in a higher risk of maternal hypertension, while abruptio placentae is commonly associated with a low-risk pregnancy.
This is incorrect because abruptio placentae, not placenta previa, is associated with maternal hypertension (e.g., preeclampsia, chronic hypertension). Placenta previa is not related to blood pressure issues.
B. "Placenta previa is characterized by sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, while abruptio placentae is associated with painless bleeding."
This is incorrect because placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, while abruptio placentae causes sudden, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and possibly dark red bleeding.
C. "Placenta previa typically presents with severe pain and contractions, whereas abruptio placentae involves painless bleeding without contractions."
This is incorrect because placenta previa does not cause pain or contractions. In contrast, abruptio placentae often presents with painful contractions and uterine hypertonicity.
D. "Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, whereas abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall."
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers the cervix (partial or complete), leading to bleeding. Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, which can lead to hemorrhage and fetal distress.
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