A nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving morphine via PCA pump following abdominal surgery two days ago and is scheduled to be switched to oral analgesics today.
The patient’s current settings are a demand dose of 1 mg, a lockout interval of 10 minutes, a four-hour limit of 30 mg, and a basal rate of 2 mg/hr.
The patient reports satisfactory pain relief with these settings and has received an average of 20 mg of morphine per four-hour period in addition to the basal rate over the past day.
The provider orders oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) 5/325 mg PO every six hours PRN for pain, starting today at noon, and discontinues the PCA pump at that time.
What action should the nurse take?
Request a prescription for a higher dose of Percocet from the provider.
Administer Percocet every six hours around-the-clock for two days.
Stop administering morphine one hour before giving Percocet.
Give Percocet only if patient reports breakthrough pain.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Administer Percocet every six hours around the clock for two days.
This is because the patient has been receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via a PCA pump, which means that they have a steady level of opioids in their system.
If the PCA pump is discontinued abruptly and the patient is switched to oral analgesics PRN, they may experience withdrawal symptoms and inadequate pain relief.
Therefore, the patient needs to receive a scheduled dose of oral opioids for at least two days to prevent a sudden drop in opioid blood concentration and to maintain adequate analgesia.
After two days, the patient’s pain level and opioid requirement may be reassessed and the oral analgesics may be tapered or given PRN as needed.
Choice A is wrong because a higher dose of Percocet is not necessary if the patient reports satisfactory pain relief with the current PCA settings. The equivalent oral dose of morphine for the patient’s average PCA consumption is about 120 mg per day (20 mg x 6 doses), which is equivalent to about 80 mg of oxycodone per day (1.5 x 120 mg).
The prescribed dose of Percocet is 20 mg of oxycodone per day (5 mg x 4 doses), which is about 25% of the patient’s previous opioid requirement. This reduction is appropriate to account for incomplete cross-tolerance between different opioids.
Choice C is wrong because stopping morphine one hour before giving Percocet will not prevent a gap in analgesia. The half-life of morphine is about 2 to 4 hours, which means that it takes about 10 to 20 hours for morphine to be eliminated from the body.
Therefore, stopping morphine one hour before giving Percocet will not significantly reduce the morphine blood concentration and will not avoid the risk of additive effects or overdose.
Choice D is wrong because giving Percocet only if the patient reports breakthrough pain will not provide adequate pain relief for the patient who has been receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via a PCA pump.
The patient may experience withdrawal symptoms and increased pain sensitivity if the opioid blood concentration drops suddenly.
Therefore, the patient needs to receive a scheduled dose of oral opioids for at least two days to prevent a gap in analgesia and to allow a smooth transition from IV to oral opioids.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Assess the patient’s leg for circulation, sensation, and movement.
This is because the patient’s symptoms of pain, tingling, and numbness in his left leg could indicate a potential complication of impaired blood flow or nerve damage after surgery.The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient’s leg for any signs of compromised circulation, sensation, or movement before administering any pain medication.
Choice A is wrong because administering morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus without assessing the patient’s leg could mask the symptoms of a serious problem and delay appropriate interventions.Morphine sulfate is a potent opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression, sedation, and constipation.
Choice B is wrong because administering ibuprofen 400 mg PO without assessing the patient’s leg could also mask the symptoms of a serious problem and delay appropriate interventions.Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, renal impairment, and increased risk of cardiovascular events.
Choice D is wrong because reassessing the patient’s pain in 15 minutes without assessing the patient’s leg could result in the worsening of the patient’s condition and increased risk of complications.The nurse should not delay assessing the patient’s leg for any signs of impaired circulation, sensation, or movement.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D) “Aspirin can cause gastrointestinal bleeding.”
This is because aspirin is a salicylate that works by reducing substances in the body that cause pain, fever, and inflammation, but also prevents blood clots from forming in the arteries.This can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in the stomach or gut.
Choice A) “Aspirin can be taken with alcohol.” is wrong because alcohol can also increase the risk of bleeding and interact with aspirin.
Choice B) “Aspirin can be taken on an empty stomach.” is wrong because aspirin can irritate the stomach lining and cause heartburn, nausea, or vomiting.It is better to take aspirin with food or water.
Choice C) “Aspirin can be taken with antacids.” is wrong because antacids can reduce the effectiveness of aspirin and interfere with its absorption.It is better to avoid taking antacids within two hours of taking aspirin.
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