A nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving morphine via PCA pump following abdominal surgery two days ago and is scheduled to be switched to oral analgesics today.

The patient’s current settings are a demand dose of 1 mg, a lockout interval of 10 minutes, a four-hour limit of 30 mg, and a basal rate of 2 mg/hr.

The patient reports satisfactory pain relief with these settings and has received an average of 20 mg of morphine per four-hour period in addition to the basal rate over the past day.

The provider orders oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) 5/325 mg PO every six hours PRN for pain, starting today at noon, and discontinues the PCA pump at that time.

What action should the nurse take?

Request a prescription for a higher dose of Percocet from the provider.

Administer Percocet every six hours around-the-clock for two days.

Stop administering morphine one hour before giving Percocet.

Give Percocet only if patient reports breakthrough pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B. Administer Percocet every six hours around the clock for two days.

This is because the patient has been receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via a PCA pump, which means that they have a steady level of opioids in their system.

If the PCA pump is discontinued abruptly and the patient is switched to oral analgesics PRN, they may experience withdrawal symptoms and inadequate pain relief.

Therefore, the patient needs to receive a scheduled dose of oral opioids for at least two days to prevent a sudden drop in opioid blood concentration and to maintain adequate analgesia.

After two days, the patient’s pain level and opioid requirement may be reassessed and the oral analgesics may be tapered or given PRN as needed.

Choice A is wrong because a higher dose of Percocet is not necessary if the patient reports satisfactory pain relief with the current PCA settings. The equivalent oral dose of morphine for the patient’s average PCA consumption is about 120 mg per day (20 mg x 6 doses), which is equivalent to about 80 mg of oxycodone per day (1.5 x 120 mg).

The prescribed dose of Percocet is 20 mg of oxycodone per day (5 mg x 4 doses), which is about 25% of the patient’s previous opioid requirement. This reduction is appropriate to account for incomplete cross-tolerance between different opioids.

Choice C is wrong because stopping morphine one hour before giving Percocet will not prevent a gap in analgesia. The half-life of morphine is about 2 to 4 hours, which means that it takes about 10 to 20 hours for morphine to be eliminated from the body.

Therefore, stopping morphine one hour before giving Percocet will not significantly reduce the morphine blood concentration and will not avoid the risk of additive effects or overdose.

Choice D is wrong because giving Percocet only if the patient reports breakthrough pain will not provide adequate pain relief for the patient who has been receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via a PCA pump.

The patient may experience withdrawal symptoms and increased pain sensitivity if the opioid blood concentration drops suddenly.

Therefore, the patient needs to receive a scheduled dose of oral opioids for at least two days to prevent a gap in analgesia and to allow a smooth transition from IV to oral opioids.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. Hepatic necrosis.Acetaminophen (APAP) is a common cause of drug-induced liver injury and can lead to hepatic necrosis, especially in patients who have chronic hepatitis C.APAP is metabolized by the liver and produces a toxic intermediate called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), which can deplete glutathione and damage hepatocytes.Patients who have chronic hepatitis C may have reduced glutathione levels and increased oxidative stress, making them more susceptible to APAP toxicity.

Choice B. Pulmonary fibrosis is wrong because APAP does not cause pulmonary fibrosis.

Pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic lung disease that involves scarring of the lung tissue and impaired gas exchange.Some drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis are amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate and nitrofurantoin.

Choice C. Pancreatitis is wrong because APAP does not cause pancreatitis.

Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas that can result from gallstones, alcohol abuse, hypertriglyceridemia, hypercalcemia, infections, trauma or certain medications.

Some drugs that can cause pancreatitis are azathioprine, valproic acid, didanosine and pentamidine.

Choice D. Cardiac dysrhythmias is wrong because APAP does not cause cardiac dysrhythmias.

Cardiac dysrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can result from electrolyte imbalances, ischemia, myocardial infarction, heart failure, congenital defects or certain medications.

Some drugs that can cause cardiac dysrhythmias are digoxin, quinidine, sotalol and erythromycin.

A. “I will change the patch every other day.” B. “I will apply the patch to a hairy area for better adhesion.” C. “I will remove the old patch before applying a new one.” D. “I will cut the patch in half if I need a lower dose.”.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C.The patient should remove the old patch before applying a new one to avoid overdose and adverse effects of fentanyl.Fentanyl patches are designed to deliver a constant amount of opioid analgesic over a period of time, usually 72 hours.

Therefore, changing the patch every other day (choice A) would result in inadequate pain relief and withdrawal symptoms.

Applying the patch to a hairy area (choice B) would interfere with the absorption of the drug and reduce its effectiveness.

Cutting the patch in half (choice D) would damage the integrity of the patch and cause erratic or rapid release of the drug, which could be fatal.Fentanyl patches should be applied to a clean, dry, hairless area of intact skin on the upper torso or upper arm.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic hepatitis C and reports taking acetaminophen daily for headaches.The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed fentanyl patches for chronic cancer pain management at home. Which statement by the patient indicates that he understands how to use this medication safely?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and has been prescribed ibuprofen (Advil). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.

A nurse is educating a patient who has been prescribed aspirin for the prevention of cardiovascular events. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

A patient who is addicted to heroin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an infection. The patient is prescribed methadone (Dolophine) as part of a detoxification program. What is the rationale for using methadone in this patient?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a sickle cell crisis and is receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which assessment finding indicates that the PCA pump is effective?

The primary health care provider instructs the nurse to obtain the patient’s pain level every four hours. Which actions by the nurse help facilitate the pain assessment? Select all that apply.

Which component of pain assessment is addressed by asking a client to rate his or her current level of discomfort on a scale of 0-10?

A patient who has chronic low back pain is prescribed oxycodone (OxyContin) for long-term use. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent complications from this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving epidural analgesia with buprenorphine (Buprenex). Which assessment finding would indicate that an adverse effect may be occurring?