A nurse is caring for a newborn 4 hours after their birth.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Soft grunting noises with respiration.
Positive Babinski reflex.
Pale blue hands and feet.
Blood-tinged discharge from the vagina.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Soft grunting noises during expiration are a sign of mild to moderate respiratory distress in a newborn. Grunting is the newborn's attempt to keep the alveoli open by increasing Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP), suggesting decreased lung compliance or insufficient surfactant. This finding requires immediate notification of the provider for evaluation and potential intervention.
Choice B rationale
A positive Babinski reflex, which involves the great toe dorsiflexing and the other toes fanning out upon stroking the sole of the foot, is a normal neurological finding in a newborn and infant. This reflex persists until about 1 to 2 years of age as the central nervous system matures, and therefore does not require reporting.
Choice C rationale
Acrocyanosis, which is pale blue hands and feet with pinkish trunk and mucous membranes, is a common and normal finding in a newborn during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth due to immature peripheral circulation and cold exposure. This peripheral vasoconstriction resolves spontaneously and is not typically reported unless accompanied by central cyanosis.
Choice D rationale
Blood-tinged discharge from the vagina, often called pseudomenstruation, is a normal, transient finding in female newborns. It is caused by the withdrawal of maternal estrogen hormones following birth, leading to a minor sloughing of the uterine endometrium, and does not indicate a pathological condition requiring immediate reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Verifying that the client has signed an informed consent form is essential before initiating cervical ripening with prostaglandins. Dinoprostone insertion is an invasive procedure with potential risks such as uterine tachysystole, fetal distress, or the need for cesarean delivery. Informed consent ensures that the client understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives, and it fulfills both ethical and legal requirements. Therefore, this intervention must be included in the plan of care prior to medication administration.
Choice B rationale: Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, must be readily available because prostaglandins can cause uterine tachysystole or hyperstimulation, which compromises uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline relaxes uterine smooth muscle, reversing hyperstimulation and preventing fetal hypoxia. Having this medication immediately accessible is a critical safety measure during induction. This aligns with the provider’s order to notify for tachysystole or nonreassuring FHR and ensures rapid intervention if complications arise.
Choice C rationale: Maintaining bed rest for 2 hours after prostaglandin administration is not recommended. The correct evidence-based practice is to keep the client in a side-lying or supine position with a wedge for 30 to 60 minutes to allow absorption of the medication and reduce the risk of expulsion. Prolonged bed rest beyond this period is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, this intervention is not appropriate for the plan of care.
Choice D rationale: Dinoprostone (Cervidil, Prepidil) is a prostaglandin E2 analog that requires refrigeration to maintain stability and potency. The medication should be kept refrigerated until just before administration to ensure effectiveness. Improper storage at room temperature for extended periods can degrade the drug, reducing its efficacy in cervical ripening. Therefore, refrigeration until administration is a correct nursing intervention and should be included in the plan of care.
Choice E rationale: Assisting with an amniotomy before prostaglandin placement is not appropriate. Prostaglandins are used to ripen the cervix before oxytocin induction, and amniotomy is typically performed later to augment labor once the cervix is favorable. Performing an amniotomy prematurely increases the risk of infection, cord prolapse, and fetal distress. Since the membranes are intact and the cervix is closed and thick, prostaglandin ripening is indicated first, not amniotomy.
Choice F rationale: Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside is necessary when administering magnesium sulfate, not prostaglandins. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, which causes respiratory depression and cardiac complications. Since this client is not receiving magnesium sulfate, calcium gluconate is not relevant to the current plan of care. Therefore, this intervention is not appropriate in this context.
Choice G rationale: Having the client void before insertion of the prostaglandin is correct. An empty bladder reduces the risk of bladder injury during insertion, improves maternal comfort, and prevents urinary retention while the client remains in the side-lying position for 30 to 60 minutes after administration. This intervention is specifically ordered by the provider and is a standard nursing action to optimize safety and comfort during cervical ripening.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used primarily to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections to prevent vertical transmission to the neonate. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a bacterium and is treated with antibiotics, specifically penicillin or ampicillin, administered intravenously during labor and delivery to prevent neonatal sepsis.
Choice B rationale
The Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is typically collected as a single screen between 36 weeks 0 days and 37 weeks 6 days of gestation from the lower vagina and perirectal area. This one-time positive result is sufficient to indicate the need for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP); repeat testing 24 hours later is not standard practice.
Choice C rationale
If the Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is positive, the client is considered colonized and requires intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP), usually penicillin G, administered intravenously at the onset of labor or rupture of membranes. This reduces the risk of GBS transmission to the newborn, which can cause severe neonatal morbidity like sepsis or pneumonia.
Choice D rationale
The Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is a screening test obtained via a swab of the client's lower vagina and perirectal area, not a blood test. The GBS bacteria colonize these areas, and the swab is sent for culture and sensitivity to determine the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
