A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who has elevated intracranial pressure (ICP). While assessing the client, the nurse hears crackles in the lungs and notes a decrease in urine output.Which complication has the client likely developed?
Post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI).
Diabetes insipidus (DI).
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
Congestive heart failure (CHF).
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI) is caused by obstruction of urine flow, leading to decreased urine output, but it does not typically cause crackles in the lungs.
Choice B rationale
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is characterized by excessive urination and thirst due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), but it does not cause crackles in the lungs.
Choice C rationale
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) involves excessive release of ADH, leading to water retention and hyponatremia, but it does not cause crackles in the lungs.
Choice D rationale
Congestive heart failure (CHF) can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs (crackles) and decreased urine output due to poor cardiac function and renal perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, often characterized by fever (temperature of 38°C or higher) and tachycardia (heart rate of 120 beats per minute or higher). These symptoms indicate the body’s response to a severe infection.
Choice B rationale
Hypovolemic shock is caused by significant fluid loss, leading to decreased blood volume and perfusion. It typically presents with hypotension and tachycardia, but not necessarily fever.
Choice C rationale
Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is characterized by chest pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms, but fever and tachycardia are not primary indicators.
Choice D rationale
Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary arteries, leading to symptoms such as sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate, but not typically fever.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing coronary artery constriction by giving aspirin is a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation and improving blood flow in the coronary arteries. This helps to alleviate chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Increasing afterload for the left ventricle to maximize cardiac output is not a desirable objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing afterload would increase the workload on the heart, which is counterproductive in patients with angina. The goal is to reduce the heart’s workload and improve blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Increasing preload to reduce overall cardiac workload is not a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing preload would increase the volume of blood returning to the heart, potentially worsening symptoms. The focus is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving coronary perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Reducing arterial inflammation by administering statins is a long-term strategy for managing cardiovascular disease, but it is not the immediate objective in managing unstable angina.
Statins help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce inflammation, but the immediate goal in unstable angina is to relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
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