A nurse is caring for a client who states he has a nevus that has increased in size and changed in color. On examination, the nurse notes an elevated two centimeter lesion that is dark brownish-black in color with irregular borders. The nurse should recognize that these findings are consistent with which of the following medical diagnoses?
Malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Kaposi's sarcoma
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that often presents as a mole that changes in size, color, and appearance. The description of the lesion being dark brownish-black with irregular borders is characteristic of malignant melanoma. This type of cancer can metastasize rapidly and requires prompt medical intervention for diagnosis and treatment.
Choice B reason: Basal cell carcinoma typically appears as a pearly or waxy bump, often with visible blood vessels. It is less likely to present as a dark, irregularly bordered lesion. Basal cell carcinoma is generally slow-growing and less likely to change rapidly in size and color compared to malignant melanoma.
Choice C reason: Squamous cell carcinoma often presents as a red, scaly, and thickened patch on the skin, sometimes with a crusted or ulcerated surface. While it can change in size, it does not typically appear as a dark, irregularly bordered lesion. Squamous cell carcinoma usually develops in areas of the skin exposed to the sun and has a different presentation compared to malignant melanoma.
Choice D reason: Kaposi's sarcoma presents as purplish, reddish-blue, or dark brown lesions that are often flat or slightly raised. These lesions are common in clients with AIDS but are usually smaller and less likely to have irregular borders compared to malignant melanoma. The description provided is more consistent with malignant melanoma than Kaposi's sarcoma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Uncontrolled hypertension is a significant risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke rather than ischemic embolic stroke. Hypertension can lead to the rupture of blood vessels in the brain, causing bleeding.
Choice B reason: The correct answer is b because chronic atrial fibrillation increases the risk of embolic stroke. In atrial fibrillation, the irregular heartbeat can lead to the formation of blood clots in the atria. These clots can travel to the brain and cause an ischemic stroke by blocking blood flow.
Choice C reason: Thrombocytopenia, characterized by low platelet count, primarily affects clotting and bleeding tendencies rather than directly increasing the risk of embolic stroke. It can, however, complicate the management of stroke due to bleeding risks.
Choice D reason: An arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is a tangle of abnormal blood vessels connecting arteries and veins in the brain. While AVMs can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke, they are not typically associated with ischemic embolic stroke.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Reviewing relaxation techniques can be beneficial for managing anxiety during an asthma attack, but it is not the highest priority in an acute situation.
Choice B reason: Providing immediate rest can help the client conserve energy and reduce the work of breathing, but it does not address the underlying cause of the asthma exacerbation.
Choice C reason: Reminding the client not to try to talk helps reduce the work of breathing, but it is not the most urgent intervention.
Choice D reason: The correct answer is d because administering a short-acting beta-adrenergic medication, such as albuterol, is the highest priority. These medications act quickly to relax the bronchial muscles, reduce bronchospasm, and improve airflow, which is critical in an acute asthma exacerbation.
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