A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider's prescription reads, "Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min." For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?

Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.

Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.

The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.

The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Another formulation of potassium should be given IV: The type of potassium formulation isn't the issue in this scenario.

B. Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water: While potassium chloride can be administered in different solutions, the primary concern here is the infusion rate, not the specific diluent.

C. The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus: The concern here is the rate of administration, not the route. Potassium is commonly administered through an IV infusion rather than a bolus due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias associated with rapid administration.

D. A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider because the potassium infusion rate is too rapid.

The prescription indicates that the client should receive potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 minutes. This rate of administration is too fast for potassium replacement and could lead to potentially serious complications, such as hyperkalemia or cardiac arrhythmias. The typical recommended rate for potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/hour, and this prescription exceeds that range.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Naloxone IV:
This choice is incorrect. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It works by displacing opioids from the receptors and rapidly reversing their effects. However, in this scenario, the client is experiencing pain 1 hour after receiving morphine, indicating that the morphine's analgesic effects have likely worn off. Naloxone is not used to manage pain, but rather to reverse opioid overdose.

B. Fentanyl transmucosal:
This choice is incorrect. Fentanyl transmucosal formulations are used for breakthrough pain in opioid-tolerant patients with chronic pain conditions. It is not typically the first choice for immediate pain relief after intravenous morphine administration. Additionally, it's worth noting that fentanyl transmucosal products, like fentanyl lollipops, are usually reserved for chronic pain management and may not be suitable for immediate post-administration pain relief.

C. Morphine tablet:
This is the correct choice. If the client is experiencing pain 1 hour after receiving morphine intravenously, it's reasonable to administer an oral or sublingual form of morphine for continued pain relief. Morphine tablets are commonly used for pain management and can provide sustained relief over a longer duration. This choice aligns with the patient's initial prescription for pain control.

D. Lidocaine patch:
This choice is incorrect. Lidocaine patches are used to manage localized neuropathic pain, such as postherpetic neuralgia. They work by numbing the skin and underlying tissues in the area where they are applied. While lidocaine patches can be effective for certain types of pain, they are not typically used to address the acute pain associated with cancer and immediate post-administration pain relief.

A. BUN 15 mg/dl. B. LDL 120 mg/dL C. Urine specific gravity 1.020 D. Blood glucose 90 mg/dl

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. BUN 15 mg/dL:
Incorrect Explanation: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is not a specific marker for assessing the effectiveness of atorvastatin treatment.
Explanation: BUN is a measure of kidney function and the breakdown of protein in the body. It is not directly related to the cholesterol-lowering effects of atorvastatin.
B. LDL 120 mg/dL.
Explanation:
Atorvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, particularly low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, which is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol. Elevated LDL cholesterol levels are a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. The goal of using medications like atorvastatin is to reduce LDL cholesterol levels to a target range, as recommended by healthcare guidelines.
A lower LDL cholesterol level indicates that the treatment with atorvastatin has been effective in achieving the desired therapeutic goal of lowering cholesterol levels and reducing the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, a decrease in LDL cholesterol is a positive outcome of atorvastatin therapy.
C. Urine specific gravity 1.020:
Incorrect Explanation: Urine-specific gravity is not a marker for assessing the effectiveness of atorvastatin.
Explanation: Urine-specific gravity measures the concentration of urine and is related to hydration status and kidney function. It is not used to evaluate the effectiveness of cholesterol-lowering medications like atorvastatin.
D. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL:
Incorrect Explanation: A blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL is not indicative of the effectiveness of atorvastatin treatment.
Explanation: Blood glucose level measures the amount of sugar in the bloodstream and is unrelated to the cholesterol-lowering effects of atorvastatin.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider's prescription reads, "Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min." For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?

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