A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as an indication for this medication?
Status asthmaticus
Status epilepticus
Kidney transplant
Endocarditis
The Correct Answer is B
Phenytoin is a primary anticonvulsant utilized for the management of generalized tonic-clonic seizures and complex partial seizures. It works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, thereby preventing the repetitive firing of neuronal action potentials that characterize seizure activity. Its role in neurological stabilization is well-established, though it requires diligent monitoring of serum drug levels to ensure therapeutic efficacy.
Rationale:
A. Status asthmaticus is an acute, severe asthma exacerbation that does not respond to standard bronchodilator therapy and requires corticosteroids or oxygen. Phenytoin has no pharmacological role in the respiratory system or the treatment of bronchospasm. This condition is a medical emergency focused on ventilation and airway management rather than the control of neuronal electrical activity.
B. Status epilepticus is a life-threatening state of persistent seizure activity where phenytoin is frequently used as a secondary agent for long-term seizure control. Following the initial administration of benzodiazepines to stop the acute seizure, phenytoin provides the sustained neuronal stabilization needed to prevent recurrence. It is a cornerstone of emergency neurological protocols designed to protect the brain from metabolic exhaustion.
C. A kidney transplant requires the lifelong administration of immunosuppressant medications, such as cyclosporine or tacrolimus, to prevent organ rejection. Phenytoin is not an immunosuppressant and actually has significant drug interactions that could lower the levels of transplant medications. Using phenytoin in this context would be inappropriate and potentially detrimental to the survival of the transplanted organ.
D. Endocarditis is a microbial infection of the heart valves or endocardium that necessitates prolonged courses of high-dose intravenous antibiotics. Phenytoin does not possess antimicrobial properties and cannot treat the underlying infection in endocarditis. While a patient with endocarditis might have a seizure due to an embolic stroke, the indication for phenytoin remains seizure management, not the heart condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Topiramate is a broad-spectrum anticonvulsantused for seizure control and migraine prophylaxis. It modulates voltage-gated sodium channels and enhances GABAergictransmission. For patients with dysphagia, the "sprinkle" formulation allows for oral administration without requiring the client to swallow a whole, large capsule shell.
Rationale:
A.Mixing the contents to be taken over several hours is incorrect because the entire dose must be consumed immediately to ensure therapeutic serum levels. Delayed consumption can lead to subtherapeutic dosing and an increased risk of breakthrough seizures. The nurse must supervise the administration to confirm that the full 25 mg dose is ingested in a single sitting.
B.Mixing the contents of the capsule in a spoonful of soft food, such as applesauce or pudding, is the recommended method for clients with difficulty swallowing. This technique ensures the medication is safely transported past the oropharynx without the risk of aspiration or choking. It is important that the food is not chewed, as the medication particles have a bitter taste.
C.Placing the contents on the tongue to dissolve is inappropriate for topiramate capsules. The medication is not formulated as an orally disintegrating tablet (ODT) and will not dissolve efficiently in the mouth. Furthermore, the taste of the undiluted medication is highly unpleasant and can cause mucosal irritation, leading to poor patient compliance and distress during administration.
D.Chewing the capsule or its contents is contraindicated because it can destroy the intended release profile and cause an immediate, unpleasant taste. Topiramate particles should be swallowed whole to avoid irritation of the mouth and throat. Chewing also increases the risk of the medication getting stuck in dental crevices, preventing the full dose from reaching the stomach for absorption.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Postoperative pain management requires rapid onsetof action to maintain the client within a therapeutic comfort window. During the immediate post-anesthesiaperiod (the first 24 hours), the gastrointestinal tract may have decreased motility, making systemic absorption via the bloodstream the most reliable method. Effective analgesia is crucial for early mobilization and preventing complications like venous thromboembolism.
Rationale:
A.The intravenous route is the priority for a client who is only 6 hours postoperative because it provides immediate bioavailability and rapid peak effect. Following a major orthopedic surgery like a hip fixation, pain levels are typically high and require the fast-acting relief that IV opioids or non-opioids provide. This route allows for precise titration of the medication based on the client’s immediate pain response.
B.The oral route is generally avoided in the very early postoperative period due to the risk of postoperative ileus and nausea related to anesthesia. Oral medications have a slower onset of action, typically taking 30 to 60 minutes to reach peak effect, which is insufficient for acute, severe surgical pain. This route is more appropriate once the client is stable and bowel sounds have returned.
C.Sublingual administration is useful for certain medications but is not the standard of care for acute postoperative pain following major surgery. Most potent surgical analgesics are not formulated for sublingual use. The nurse requires a route that can deliver a wide range of analgesic agents reliably, making the intravenous route superior for the immediate recovery phase of a hip surgery.
D.The intramuscular route is generally discouraged for postoperative pain because it is painful, results in inconsistent absorption, and has a slower onset than the intravenous route. Repeated IM injections can cause tissue damage and hematomas, especially in surgical clients who may be on anticoagulants. Modern nursing practice favors IV access for acute pain to ensure consistent and rapid relief.
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