A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following is the first action the nurse should take?
Measure the client's gastric residual before each feeding.
Change the bag and tubing every 24 hr.
Document intake and output.
Flush the tubing with 30 mL of water after each feeding.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is Choice A - Measure the client's gastric residual before each feeding.
Choice A rationale:
The nurse's first action in caring for a client receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be to measure the client's gastric residual before each feeding. Gastric residual volume helps assess the client's tolerance to enteral feedings and can indicate delayed gastric emptying or potential complications like aspiration. If the residual volume is high, the nurse can collaborate with the healthcare team to determine whether to hold the feeding, adjust the feeding rate, or take other appropriate actions to ensure the client's safety and optimal nutritional status.
Choice B rationale:
Changing the enteral feeding bag and tubing every 24 hours is important to maintain the sterility and integrity of the feeding system. However, it is not the first action the nurse should take. The priority is to assess the client's tolerance to the feeding by measuring gastric residuals, which helps prevent complications.
Choice C rationale:
Documenting intake and output is a crucial aspect of nursing care for all clients, including those receiving enteral feedings. However, in the context of intermittent enteral feedings, measuring gastric residuals before each feeding is a more immediate and specific action to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
Choice D rationale:
Flushing the tubing with 30 mL of water after each feeding is important to prevent clogging and maintain the patency of the enteral feeding tube. However, this action is secondary to measuring gastric residuals, which directly assesses the client's tolerance to the feedings and helps prevent complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice b. Three-point.
Choice A rationale:
The four-point gait is used when a client can bear weight on both legs. It involves moving one crutch forward, followed by the opposite leg, then the other crutch, and finally the other leg. This gait provides maximum stability but is not suitable for non-weight-bearing conditions.
Choice B rationale:
The three-point gait is appropriate for clients who cannot bear weight on one leg. In this gait, both crutches and the affected leg move forward together, followed by the unaffected leg. This allows the client to keep weight off the injured leg while moving.
Choice C rationale:
The two-point gait is used when a client can bear partial weight on both legs. It involves moving one crutch and the opposite leg forward simultaneously, followed by the other crutch and leg. This gait is faster than the four-point gait but still provides some stability.
Choice D rationale:
The swing-through gait is used by clients who have good upper body strength and balance. It involves moving both crutches forward together and then swinging both legs forward past the crutches. This gait is not typically recommended for clients who need to keep weight off one leg.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A.
Choice A rationale:
Count the client's radial and apical pulses simultaneously with another nurse. Rationale: In the presence of an irregular heart rate, a pulse deficit might indicate a discrepancy between the peripheral (radial) and central (apical) pulses. Counting the pulses simultaneously with another nurse helps to accurately assess this deficit. By comparing the two pulse rates, the nurse can identify if there is a difference, which might indicate inadequate circulation or irregular heartbeats that aren't effectively transmitting to the peripheral arteries.
Choice B rationale:
Calculate the client's pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2. Rationale: While calculating the pulse rate for 30 seconds and then multiplying by 2 is a valid method to determine the heart rate, it doesn't address the specific concern of a pulse deficit. This approach might help in assessing the overall heart rate but doesn't provide information about potential irregularities or discrepancies between peripheral and central pulses.
Choice C rationale:
Assist the client to a side-lying position. Rationale: Assisting the client to a side-lying position doesn't directly relate to the assessment of a pulse deficit. The position of the client wouldn't significantly impact the assessment of irregular heart rates or pulse deficits.
Choice D rationale:
Auscultate the area of the client's chest over the Erb's point. Rationale: Auscultating the area of the client's chest over the Erb's point is a technique used to assess heart sounds, particularly the S2 heart sound. This technique is not relevant to assessing a pulse deficit. It can provide information about heart valve function but doesn't help in evaluating a discrepancy between peripheral and central pulses.
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