A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum. The client is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding and has a boggy uterus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Apply oxygen via a non-rebreather mask at & L/min.
Administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM
Encourage the client to empty her bladder
Initiate fundal massage.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - Applying oxygen is not the priority action in the case of excessive vaginal bleeding and a boggy uterus. Oxygen therapy would be appropriate if there were signs of respiratory distress or decreased oxygen saturation, but it does not directly address the primary concern of uterine atony and bleeding.
B) Incorrect - Administering methylergonovine might be appropriate, but the priority is to address the uterine atony with fundal massage first. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding, which is crucial in this scenario.
C) Incorrect - Encouraging the client to empty her bladder is important, but it is not the first action to take in the case of excessive bleeding and uterine atony. Immediate intervention to control the bleeding takes precedence.
D) Correct - Initiating fundal massage is the priority action in this situation. A boggy uterus with excessive vaginal bleeding indicates uterine atony, which is a potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further bleeding.
Fundal massage helps the uterus contract and control bleeding. Addressing uterine atony is critical to prevent further hemorrhage and stabilize the client's condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Monitoring for infection is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client whose membranes have ruptured, as there is an increased risk of infection after the amniotic sac has ruptured for an extended period.
B) Incorrect- Positioning the client supine is not generally recommended for a client in labor, especially if the client's membranes have ruptured.
C) Incorrect- Obtaining consent for a cesarean birth is not indicated solely based on the information provided.
D) Incorrect- Preparing for a forceps delivery is not indicated solely based on the information provided.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Tachycardia (elevated heart rate) can be a common physiological response to pain or other factors and is not necessarily indicative of an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
B) Incorrect- Fever might be related to various factors, including infection, and is not directly indicative of an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
C) Correct - Tachypnea (rapid breathing) can be an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
It can indicate that the anesthesia has spread too high in the spinal column, potentially affecting the respiratory muscles and causing respiratory distress.
D) Incorrect- Hypertension might be a side effect of epidural anesthesia, but tachypnea is a more specific indication of an adverse effect in this context.
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