A nurse is caring for a client who is in the latent phase of labor and reports severe back pain.
The vaginal examination reveals that the cervix is dilated 2 cm, 25% effaced, and -2 station.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Administer a dose of terbutaline to the client.
Place the client in a warm bath.
Apply counterpressure during each contraction.
Request the provider prescribe a pudendal nerve block.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Administering terbutaline is used to stop or slow down preterm labor contractions. In the given scenario, the client is in the latent phase of labor and is experiencing severe back pain. Terbutaline is not indicated for back pain during labor.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the client in a warm bath can provide comfort and relaxation, but it may not specifically alleviate back pain during labor. Additionally, warm baths are more commonly used for pain relief in early labor or during the active phase, not specifically for back pain.
Choice C rationale:
Applying counterpressure during each contraction is an appropriate intervention for relieving back pain during labor. Back pain is a common discomfort experienced by many women during labor, and counterpressure, often applied by a support person or nurse, can help alleviate the discomfort. It is a non-pharmacological method that can be effective in managing pain during labor.
Choice D rationale:
Requesting the provider prescribe a pudendal nerve block is not the first-line intervention for back pain during labor. Pudendal nerve blocks are used for pain relief during the second stage of labor (during delivery) and are typically administered by the provider if needed. It is not the appropriate intervention for back pain in the latent phase of labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A. Radial vein of the inner arm. This is correct because this site is easily accessible, has good blood flow, and has less risk of complications such as infection, thrombosis, or infiltration.
- B. Great saphenous vein of the leg. This is incorrect because this site is not recommended for older adults due to poor circulation, increased risk of thrombophlebitis, and difficulty in monitoring.
- C. Dorsal plexus vein of the foot. This is incorrect because this site is prone to edema, infection, and injury, and can interfere with mobility and comfort.
- D. Basilic vein of the hand. This is incorrect because this site is more painful, has smaller veins, and can cause nerve damage or occlusion if not inserted carefully.
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