A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor when the client's membranes rupture. The fetal monitor tracing shows late decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first?
Turn the client onto her side.
Increase the client's IV fluid infusion rate.
Administer oxygen to the client.
Palpate the client's uterus.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A:The priority action when the fetal monitor tracing shows late decelerations after the client's membranes rupture is to turn the client onto her side. This position change helps relieve pressure on the vena cava and improves blood flow to the fetus.
Choice B: Increasing the client's IV fluid infusion rate is not the first priority in this situation, as late decelerations are primarily related to uteroplacental insufficiency rather than maternal hydration status.
Choice C: Administering oxygen to the client is important, but turning the client onto her side should be the first action to improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice D: Palpating the client's uterus is not the first priority in the presence of late
decelerations. The focus should be on relieving the compression on the vena cava and improving fetal oxygenation by changing the client's position.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: An ultrasound can indeed determine the number of fetuses if a client is carrying multiples, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before amniocentesis.
Choice B: An ultrasound is typically done before an amniocentesis to visualize the location of the placenta and fetus. This information is important to ensure that the amniocentesis needle is safely inserted away from the placenta and the fetus.
Choice C: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid to screen for genetic conditions, not specifically for spina bifida.
Choice D: Fetal age can be estimated through an ultrasound, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before an amniocentesis. The main goal of the procedure is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for genetic testing.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is: c. 42022
Choice A: 40122
Reason: This choice is incorrect because it indicates 4 pregnancies (correct), 0 term births (correct), 1 preterm birth (correct), 2 abortions (correct), but 2 living children (incorrect). The client has 2 living children, which is correct, but the term and preterm counts are not accurate.
Choice B: 20020
Reason: This choice is incorrect because it indicates 2 pregnancies (incorrect), 0 term births (correct), 0 preterm births (incorrect), 2 abortions (correct), and 0 living children (incorrect). The client has had 4 pregnancies, 1 preterm birth, and 2 living children.
Choice C: 42022
Reason: This choice is correct. It indicates 4 pregnancies (current pregnancy, elective abortion, twins, spontaneous abortion), 0 term births, 2 preterm births (twins at 36 weeks), 2 abortions (elective at 9 weeks, spontaneous at 15 weeks), and 2 living children (twins).
Choice D:
The GTPAL system is used to assess a client's obstetric history:
- G (Gravida): The total number of pregnancies, including the current one.
- T (Term births): The number of pregnancies carried to at least 37 weeks.
- P (Preterm births): The number of pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 weeks, 6 days.
- A (Abortions): The number of pregnancies ending before 20 weeks (spontaneous or elective).
- L (Living children): The number of children currently alive.
For this client:
G (Gravida): 4 (one elective abortion, one twin pregnancy, one spontaneous abortion, and the current pregnancy).
- T (Term births): 0 (the twin pregnancy was delivered at 36 weeks, which is preterm).
- P (Preterm births): 1 (twins delivered at 36 weeks count as one preterm birth).
- A (Abortions): 2 (one elective abortion at 9 weeks, one spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks).
- L (Living children): 2 (the twins).
Thus, the GTPAL for this client is 4-0-1-2-2.
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