A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe pain during active labor.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer and document in the client's medical record?
Hydrocodone.
Naproxen.
Naloxone hydrochloride.
Fentanyl citrate.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic, but it is typically used for moderate to severe pain and is not commonly administered as a primary agent for severe active labor pain due to its slower onset and potential for more pronounced maternal and neonatal respiratory depression compared to other rapid-acting opioids.
Choice B rationale
Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) primarily used for mild to moderate pain and inflammation. It is generally not effective enough for severe labor pain and is contraindicated in late pregnancy due to potential adverse effects on fetal circulation, such as premature closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Choice C rationale
Naloxone hydrochloride is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Administering naloxone during active labor would reverse the effects of any pain medication given, exacerbating the client's pain and potentially precipitating opioid withdrawal symptoms, thus it is not an appropriate pain management strategy.
Choice D rationale
Fentanyl citrate is a potent, rapid-acting synthetic opioid analgesic commonly used for severe pain during active labor. Its quick onset and short duration of action make it suitable for intermittent administration, allowing for effective pain relief with a lower risk of prolonged neonatal respiratory depression compared to longer-acting opioids.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Providing an opportunity to connect with others who have experienced similar losses offers significant psychosocial support. Sharing experiences can normalize grief, reduce feelings of isolation, and validate emotions. This peer support can facilitate the grieving process by fostering a sense of community and understanding during a challenging time.
Choice B rationale
While some causes of spontaneous abortion can be identified, many remain unknown even after the expulsion of fetal tissue. Genetic anomalies, chromosomal abnormalities, or uterine factors are often implicated, but a definitive cause is not always determined. Providing this information can create unrealistic expectations and potential disappointment for the client.
Choice C rationale
The decision to view fetal remains is highly personal and depends on individual coping mechanisms and cultural beliefs. For some, it can be a crucial part of acknowledging the loss and beginning the grieving process. Advising against it prematurely removes a potential avenue for closure and validation for the client.
Choice D rationale
Validating the client's grief, regardless of the gestational age, is crucial for emotional well-being. Acknowledging that it is "okay to feel some grief now" provides permission for the client to experience their emotions. Grief is a subjective process, and the intensity and duration are not dictated by the length of the pregnancy.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The client exhibits signs consistent with severe preeclampsia including blood pressure above 160/110 mm Hg, 3+ to 4+ deep tendon reflexes, and positive clonus, which are neurological indicators of central nervous system irritability. These findings increase the risk for eclamptic seizures. The headache, visual disturbances (“spots”), and epigastric pain further indicate imminent seizure risk from cerebral edema and vasospasm. Early intervention is crucial to prevent progression to eclampsia.
Choice B rationale: Elevated blood pressure combined with preeclampsia significantly raises the risk of abruptio placentae, the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. This occurs because hypertension causes vasospasm and weakening of the placental attachment, increasing placental insufficiency and hemorrhage. The client’s edema and headache indicate vascular endothelial dysfunction, contributing to this risk. Abruptio placentae is a critical obstetric emergency requiring urgent recognition.
Choice C rationale: The client’s symptoms and signs of hypertension, headache, epigastric pain, and elevated blood pressure with edema suggest progression toward HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets). Although labs are not provided, the clinical presentation fits the syndrome’s prodromal phase. HELLP syndrome is a severe variant of preeclampsia with hepatic involvement, which can cause multiorgan dysfunction and increased maternal-fetal morbidity if untreated.
Choice D rationale: Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typical in preeclampsia or related hypertensive disorders; instead, oliguria (decreased urine output below 30 mL/hr) may occur due to renal impairment. The client’s urine output of 25–55 mL/hr borders low normal, signaling possible kidney hypoperfusion, but polyuria is not a recognized complication here. Polyuria is more associated with diabetes or diuretic therapy, not hypertensive pregnancy disorders.
Choice E rationale: Ketoacidosis is metabolic acidosis due to ketone accumulation from uncontrolled diabetes or starvation. This client has no history or symptoms of diabetes or starvation, and no laboratory evidence of hyperglycemia or acidosis is reported. Ketoacidosis is not a complication linked to preeclampsia or hypertension in pregnancy and is therefore unlikely in this case.
Choice F rationale: Fetal macrosomia is excessive fetal growth usually related to maternal diabetes or obesity. This client has no indications of gestational diabetes or excessive fetal growth; fetal heart rate and contractions are within normal limits, and no mention of abnormal fundal height or ultrasound findings is given. The mild hypertension and edema do not predispose to macrosomia.
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