A nurse is caring for a client who inquires about a cervical cap for contraception.The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap?
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
History of thrombophlebitis.
History of toxic shock syndrome.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Auscultating fetal heart tones during a contraction does not provide a clear assessment of the fetal heart rate pattern and can be affected by the contraction itself.
Choice B rationale
Placing a Doppler ultrasound over the fundus is not effective, as the fundus is not the optimal location to hear fetal heart tones, especially in early labor.
Choice C rationale
Performing Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position is crucial as it helps in placing the Doppler in the correct position for accurate monitoring of fetal heart tones.
Choice D rationale
Counting the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds and then multiplying by 4 may not provide an accurate assessment of the fetal heart rate pattern or variability, which is important for fetal well-being assessment. .
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Endometritis is indicated by a high temperature (38.4°C), elevated heart rate (108/min), foul-smelling lochia, and a tender boggy uterus. These are classic signs of infection post-cesarean birth, particularly following prolonged rupture of membranes, which increases infection risk. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics targets the infection, while oxytocic medication helps manage uterine atony and promote uterine contraction to expel infected lochia.
Actions Explanation:
- Administer broad-spectrum antibiotic medication: This addresses the underlying infection causing endometritis.
- Monitor the administration of an oxytocic medication: Ensures uterine contraction, reducing uterine atony and helping clear infected materials.
Parameters to Monitor:
- Temperature: Indicates the presence and resolution of infection.
- Lochia amount and odor: Helps assess the severity of infection and effectiveness of treatment.
Other Conditions:
- B. Urinary tract infection (UTI): Less likely since the client denies urinary symptoms like burning or difficulty.
- C. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT): Bilateral lower extremity edema without pain, warmth, or tenderness doesn't align with unilateral swelling/pain typical of DVT.
- D. Engorgement: Not likely since the client is bottle-feeding and denies nipple discomfort; also, the lochia characteristics and boggy uterus point to infection.
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