A nurse is caring for a client who has eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate and hydralazine.
The client’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
The nurse notes that the client’s deep tendon reflexes are absent.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion
Administer calcium gluconate IV push
Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus
The Correct Answer is A
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is a manifestation of severe preeclampsia that indicates liver involvement and can precede a seizure.
The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for possible delivery of the baby.
Choice A is wrong because blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg is a sign of mild preeclampsia, not severe.Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed when the systolic pressure is 160 mm Hg or higher or the diastolic pressure is 110 mm Hg or higher.
Choice B is wrong because urine protein of 2+ is also a sign of mild preeclampsia, not severe.Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed when the urine protein is 3+ or higher.
Choice D is wrong because facial edema is a common finding in normal pregnancy and does not indicate severe preeclampsia.Other signs of severe preeclampsia include headache, blurred vision, oliguria, thrombocytopenia, and pulmonary edema.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Respiratory rate 10/min.This indicatesmuscle weaknessanddifficulty breathing, which are symptoms ofmagnesium toxicity.Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can cause magnesium overdose if given in excess or if the patient has impaired kidney function.
Choice B.Urine output 40 mL/hr is wrong because this is within the normal range for urine output, which is 30 to 50 mL/hr.Urine output may decrease in severe cases of magnesium toxicity due to urine retention.
Choice C. Patellar reflex 2+ is wrong because this is a normal finding for the knee-jerk reflex.A low or absent patellar reflex may indicate magnesium toxicity, as it reflectsmuscle weaknessandnerve dysfunction.
Choice D.Serum magnesium level 4.5 mEq/L is wrong because this is within the normal range for serum magnesium, which is 1.7 to 2.3 mEq/L.Serum magnesium levels above 2.6 mEq/L can indicate hypermagnesemia or magnesium overdose.
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