A nurse is caring for a client who has eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate and hydralazine.
The client’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
The nurse notes that the client’s deep tendon reflexes are absent.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion
Administer calcium gluconate IV push
Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus
The Correct Answer is A
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Headache unrelieved by analgesics.This is because headache is a common symptom of HELLP syndrome, a rare pregnancy complication that can cause high blood pressure, seizures, stroke or liver rupture.HELLP syndrome is a type of preeclampsia and has similar symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because breast engorgement is a normal postpartum condition that occurs when the breasts are full of milk and become swollen and tender.
It is not related to HELLP syndrome.
Choice B is wrong because lochia rubra for 3 days postpartum is a normal finding that indicates the shedding of the uterine lining after delivery.
It is not related to HELLP syndrome.
Choice D is wrong because perineal discomfort is a common postpartum discomfort that results from the stretching and tearing of the perineal tissues during vaginal delivery.
It is not related to HELLP syndrome.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg, for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter, and for liver enzymes are 7 to 56 units per liter for AST and 0 to 35 units per liter for ALT.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client will have to monitor her blood pressure at home for a month after delivery because preeclampsia can persist or develop for the first time after delivery.The client should seek medical care if she has signs of postpartum preeclampsia, such as severe headaches, vision changes, severe belly pain, nausea and vomiting.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant medication that is given to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia during labor and usually for 24 hours after delivery.
It is not needed for another week.
Choice C is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated in women with preeclampsia.Breastfeeding may even lower the blood pressure and help with bonding.
Choice D is wrong because contraception is not related to preeclampsia.The client should discuss with her healthcare provider about the best contraceptive method for her based on her medical history and preferences.
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