A nurse is caring for a client who has eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate and hydralazine.

The client’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%.

The nurse notes that the client’s deep tendon reflexes are absent.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion

Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion

Administer calcium gluconate IV push

Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.

The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.

Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.

The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.

Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.

The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.

Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.

It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.

Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.

The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.

Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Turn the client to the side.This is because turning the client to the side will prevent aspiration of secretions or vomitus and maintain a patent airway during a seizure.

This is the most important and immediate action to take for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.

Choice A is wrong because administering oxygen via face mask is not the first priority and may not be feasible during a seizure.Oxygen therapy may be indicated after the seizure to improve oxygenation and fetal well-being.

Choice C is wrong because inserting an oral airway is contraindicated during a seizure as it may cause injury to the oral mucosa or trigger a gag reflex.An oral airway may be used after the seizure if the client is unconscious and has a compromised airway.

Choice D is wrong because giving a loading dose of magnesium sulfate is not the first action to take, although it is an important intervention to prevent further seizures and lower blood pressure in eclampsia.Magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously after securing the airway and ensuring adequate ventilation.

A. Administer calcium gluconate as an antidote if toxicity occurs B. Monitor the client’s blood glucose level every 4 hours C. Discontinue the infusion if the client’s respiratory rate is below 16/min D. Increase the infusion rate if the client’s urine output is above 30 mL/hr

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Administer calcium gluconate as an antidote if toxicity occurs.Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with severe preeclampsia.However, it can also cause side effects and toxicity, such as respiratory depression, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrest.Calcium gluconate is an antidote that can reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate and restore normal neuromuscular function.

Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not affect blood glucose levels.

There is no need to monitor the client’s blood glucose level every 4 hours.

Choice C is wrong because the infusion should be discontinued if the client’s respiratory rate is below 12/min, not 16/min.

A low respiratory rate indicates respiratory depression, which is a sign of magnesium toxicity.

Choice D is wrong because the infusion rate should not be increased if the client’s urine output is above 30 mL/hr.Urine output should be at least 30 mL/hr while administering magnesium sulfate to prevent accumulation of the drug in the body.

Increasing the infusion rate can increase the risk of toxicity.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

(select all that apply) A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had severe pre-eclampsia and delivered a healthy baby at 34 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had severe pre-eclampsia and delivered a healthy baby at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom to the provider as a possible sign of postpartum pre-eclampsia?

A nurse is caring for a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is experiencing magnesium toxicity?

A nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is being induced with oxytocin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a manifestation of severe preeclampsia?

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had preeclampsia and delivered her baby 2 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is administering magnesium sulfate IV to a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to monitor for magnesium toxicity? Select all that apply.