A nurse is caring for a client who has eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate and hydralazine.
The client’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
The nurse notes that the client’s deep tendon reflexes are absent.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion
Administer calcium gluconate IV push
Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus
The Correct Answer is A
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
“I will resume my normal activities as soon as possible.” This statement indicates a need for further teaching because a woman who had severe pre-eclampsia should rest more often and avoid strenuous activities until her blood pressure is normal and stable.She should also follow up with her doctor regularly and monitor her blood pressure at home.
Choice A is wrong because it is important to monitor blood pressure at home for a few weeks after having pre-eclampsia.
This can help detect any signs of worsening hypertension or organ damage.
Choice B is wrong because it is advisable to call the doctor if there are any headaches or vision changes, as these could be signs of brain injury or eclampsia.
Eclampsia is a serious complication of pre-eclampsia that causes seizures.
Choice C is wrong because some over-the-counter pain medications, such as ibuprofen, can increase blood pressure and should be avoided by women with pre-eclampsia.However, acetaminophen (Tylenol) is usually safe to take for mild pain relief.
Normal ranges for blood pressure during pregnancy are less than 140/90 mmHg.Normal ranges for protein in urine during pregnancy are less than 300 mg in 24 hours.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate overdose.Magnesium sulfate blocks calcium, so calcium gluconate can reverse the effect of an overdose.
The other choices are not antidotes for magnesium sulfate.Choice A, naloxone, is the antidote for narcotics or opioid overdose.Choice B, flumazenil, is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.Choice D, protamine sulfate, is the antidote for heparin overdose.The normal range of magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L, so a level of 10 mg/dL indicates toxicity.
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