A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and has been on a heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots."
"Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level."
"The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay."
"I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Heparin and warfarin do not work together to dissolve clots. Heparin acts quickly to prevent further clotting, while warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation.
Choice B reason: Warfarin's onset of action is slow, requiring several days to reach therapeutic levels. During this time, heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation to prevent new clot formation or the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: IV heparin does not increase the effects of warfarin. They are used concurrently because of the delay in warfarin's onset of action.
Choice D reason: It is not appropriate to discontinue heparin immediately after starting warfarin due to the delay in warfarin reaching therapeutic levels. The overlap is necessary to ensure continuous anticoagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:Placing the client in a sitting position helps to lower blood pressure by promoting venous return and is the first action to take in cases of autonomic dysreflexia²³.
Choice B reason:While examining for skin breakdown is important, it is not the first action to take when autonomic dysreflexia is suspected.
Choice C reason:Checking the bladder for distention is a critical step, but it should be done after positioning the client to address immediate blood pressure concerns.
Choice D reason:Checking for fecal impaction is also important but follows the initial step of positioning the client to manage blood pressure.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:Profuse vomiting with a fecal odor can occur in large bowel obstructions due to the backward flow of bowel contents.
Choice B reason:Epigastric abdominal distention is a common finding in bowel obstructions due to the accumulation of gas and fluids.
Choice C reason:Intermittent abdominal cramping results from the bowel's attempt to push contents through the obstructed area.
Choice D reason:Ribbon-like stools or diarrhea may occur if there is a partial obstruction allowing some contents to pass.
Choice E reason:Metabolic acidosis can develop due to the accumulation of lactic acid from tissue hypoxia and decreased perfusion.
Choice F reason:Severe fluid and electrolyte imbalance can result from vomiting and the inability to absorb fluids and nutrients properly.
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