A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous (IV) heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What is the nurse's priority action to ensure safe administration of the medication?
Monitoring the client's prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
Assessing the client's liver function regularly.
Administering heparin via a central venous catheter.
Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
The Correct Answer is D
A) This choice is incorrect because monitoring prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is more relevant to monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy (e.g., warfarin) and not intravenous heparin therapy.
B) This choice is incorrect because while liver function tests may be important for some medications, they are not the priority for clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Heparin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys.
C) This choice is incorrect because while administering heparin via a central venous catheter is possible, it is not the priority action for safe administration. Monitoring the client's response to heparin therapy is more important.
D) This choice is correct. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the priority action when administering intravenous heparin. The aPTT reflects the client's response to heparin and helps adjust the dosage to achieve the desired therapeutic effect while minimizing the risk of bleeding.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because regular physical activity is an essential preventive measure for DVT. Encouraging the client to engage in physical activity is vital for maintaining good circulation and reducing the risk of clot formation.
B) This choice is incorrect because a diet high in saturated fats and cholesterol is not a recommended preventive measure for DVT. A healthy, balanced diet is important for overall health, but it does not specifically prevent DVT.
C) This choice is incorrect because elevating the legs above heart level while resting is beneficial for reducing edema and improving blood flow but is not the primary preventive measure for DVT.
D) This choice is correct. The client should continue taking prescribed anticoagulant medication as directed by their healthcare provider. Anticoagulant therapy is often prescribed for a specific duration to prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of complications in clients with DVT.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) This choice is correct. Gender is a non-modifiable risk factor for DVT, with women generally having a higher risk than men. Hormonal changes, such as those associated with pregnancy, oral contraceptives, and hormone replacement therapy, can contribute to the increased risk in women.
B) This choice is incorrect because obesity is a modifiable risk factor for DVT, not a non-modifiable one. Clients can work to achieve and maintain a healthy weight to reduce their risk.
C) This choice is incorrect because smoking history is a modifiable risk factor for DVT. Clients can quit smoking to decrease their risk of blood clot formation.
D) This choice is incorrect because a sedentary lifestyle is a modifiable risk factor for DVT. Clients can engage in regular physical activity to reduce their risk.
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