A nurse is caring for a 34-year-old female client who is 2 days postpartum in the postpartum unit.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for Correct Condition
Subinvolution refers to delayed uterine involution, often due to retained placental fragments or infection. The boggy uterus, excessive lochia, and passage of clots are hallmark signs. The history of postpartum hemorrhage increases risk, and fundal tenderness suggests uterine atony rather than infection or hematoma formation.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Oxytocin enhances uterine contractions to reduce bleeding and facilitate involution by increasing myometrial tone. Methylergonovine is a potent uterotonic that further supports contraction, decreasing hemorrhage risk, but must be used cautiously in hypertensive patients.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Saturated perineal pads track blood loss severity, guiding interventions for ongoing hemorrhage. Excessive bleeding may require further medical management. Hemoglobin and hematocrit assess for anemia due to blood loss, guiding transfusion decisions if needed.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Postpartum preeclampsia presents with hypertension and proteinuria, not uterine atony. Perineal hematoma manifests as localized swelling with severe perineal pain, which is absent here. Thrombophlebitis involves unilateral extremity swelling and pain, not fundal tenderness or abnormal lochia.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Ice packs to the perineum manage hematomas, not uterine atony. Anticoagulants are used for thromboembolic prevention, not postpartum bleeding. Quiet environment is relevant for preeclampsia, not uterine subinvolution.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Seizures are relevant to preeclampsia, not uterine subinvolution. Calf circumference is monitored for thrombophlebitis, which is absent here. Rectal pain is not an expected indicator of uterine involution status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain in a patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), now known as gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, are serious signs indicating worsening disease severity. These symptoms suggest central nervous system irritability (headache, visual changes) and potential liver involvement or severe preeclampsia (epigastric pain), increasing the risk of eclampsia, which is characterized by seizures.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is a medication commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with severe preeclampsia. While it can cause side effects such as flushing, warmth, and muscle weakness, it does not typically cause a pounding headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. These symptoms are indicative of the underlying disease process, not the medication.
Choice C rationale
While hospitalization can induce anxiety in some patients, the specific combination of a pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain in the context of pregnancy-induced hypertension strongly suggests a physiological basis related to the worsening of the hypertensive disorder, rather than solely psychological distress.
Choice D rationale
While epigastric pain can be associated with gastrointestinal issues, in a patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension experiencing a pounding headache and visual changes concurrently, it is more likely related to hepatic involvement or severe preeclampsia. A focused assessment of the gastrointestinal system alone would not adequately address the potential severity of the situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Positioning the newborn supine on a radiant warmer is appropriate for maintaining thermoregulation. However, applying only a sterile gauze dressing to a large abdominal wall defect that is not covered by a membrane does not adequately protect the exposed organs from contamination, drying, or injury. This increases the risk of infection and fluid loss.
Choice B rationale
Placing the newborn into a sterile bowel bag up to the axilla is the recommended immediate action for an abdominal wall defect such as gastroschisis (protrusion without a membrane). The sterile bag helps to maintain a moist environment, prevent heat and fluid loss, and protect the exposed organs from trauma and contamination until surgical repair can be performed.
Choice C rationale
While breastfeeding promotes bonding and provides essential nutrients, it is not the priority action for a newborn with a large, uncovered abdominal wall defect immediately after birth. The immediate focus should be on protecting the exposed organs and stabilizing the newborn. Breastfeeding can be initiated once the newborn is stable and the abdominal defect is appropriately managed.
Choice D rationale
Providing intermittent suction via an orogastric tube may be necessary later to decompress the gastrointestinal system, but it is not the immediate priority for a newborn with a large, uncovered abdominal wall defect. The initial action should focus on protecting the exposed organs.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.