A nurse is assisting with an in-service to a group of staff members about schizophrenia. Which of the following age groups should the nurse include as the age when schizophrenia is typically diagnosed?

School-age

Young adulthood

Preschooler

Older adulthood

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. School-age: Schizophrenia is rare in children, and early-onset cases before adolescence are uncommon. Symptoms that resemble schizophrenia in children often require further evaluation for other neurodevelopmental disorders.
B. Young adulthood: Schizophrenia typically manifests between late adolescence and early adulthood, usually between ages 18 and 25 in men and slightly later in women. This period is when individuals experience their first psychotic episode.
C. Preschooler: Schizophrenia is extremely rare in preschool-aged children. Symptoms such as hallucinations or disorganized behavior at this age are more likely related to other developmental disorders or trauma.
D. Older adulthood: Late-onset schizophrenia is rare, and when psychotic symptoms emerge in older adults, they are often due to conditions such as dementia, delirium, or medication effects rather than primary schizophrenia.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "The procedure will take about 2 hours.": A typical transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) session lasts about 30 to 40 minutes. The treatment is conducted on an outpatient basis, allowing clients to resume daily activities immediately afterward.
B. "Most people only require one treatment to eliminate their depression.": TMS is typically administered in multiple sessions over several weeks. A full course usually consists of daily treatments for four to six weeks to achieve significant symptom improvement.
C. "You may experience a mild headache following the procedure.": Mild headaches and scalp discomfort are common side effects of TMS due to repeated magnetic pulses stimulating the brain. These effects are generally temporary and can be managed with over-the-counter analgesics.
D. "You will be asleep during the procedure.": TMS does not require sedation or anesthesia. Clients remain awake and alert during the procedure, as the treatment is noninvasive and does not cause significant discomfort requiring sedation.

A. Dialectical behavior therapy B. Antipsychotic medications C. Interpersonal therapy D. Antidepressant medications

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Dialectical behavior therapy. Dialectical behavior therapy is primarily used for borderline personality disorder, focusing on emotional regulation, distress tolerance, and mindfulness. It is not the primary therapy for avoidant personality disorder.
B. Antipsychotic medications. Antipsychotic medications are typically used to manage symptoms of psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. Avoidant personality disorder does not involve psychosis and is better managed with psychotherapy.
C. Interpersonal therapy. Interpersonal therapy is beneficial for avoidant personality disorder as it focuses on improving social skills, self-esteem, and communication. This therapy helps clients develop healthier relationships and overcome fears of rejection.
D. Antidepressant medications. While antidepressants may be used to treat co-occurring conditions such as depression or anxiety, they do not directly address the core features of avoidant personality disorder. Psychotherapy remains the primary treatment.

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A nurse is assisting with an in-service to a group of staff members about schizophrenia. Which of the following age groups should the nurse include as the age when schizophrenia is typically diagnosed?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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