A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving penicillin IV. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a manifestation of anaphylaxis?

Increased blood pressure

Hypertonia

Wheezing

Urinary retention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: While increased blood pressure can occur in various conditions, it might not specifically indicate anaphylaxis to penicillin.

Choice B rationale: Hypertonia might not directly correlate with anaphylaxis and could be caused by other factors.

Choice C rationale: Wheezing is a critical sign of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. Reporting wheezing to the provider is crucial for immediate intervention to prevent further complications associated with anaphylaxis.

Choice D rationale: Urinary retention is not a typical manifestation of anaphylaxis to penicillin and might not be directly linked to the allergic reaction.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone.
Choice B rationale: Bradycardia is not commonly associated with an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone.
Choice C rationale: Hypotension (low blood pressure) can be a manifestation of an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this and take appropriate action.
Choice D rationale: Nausea can be a side effect of ceftriaxone but might not solely indicate an allergic reaction.

A. aPTT 90 seconds B. Platelets 350,000/mm3 C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 18 mm/hr D. INR 1.2

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is prolonged, indicating that heparin is exerting an increased anticoagulant effect. To prevent bleeding, the nurse should decrease the infusion rate.
Choice B rationale: A platelet count within the normal range wouldn't necessarily prompt a decrease in heparin infusion.
Choice C rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is not directly related to heparin infusion.
Choice D rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 1.2 suggests a low risk of bleeding, not requiring a decrease in heparin infusion.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving penicillin IV. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a manifestation of anaphylaxis?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ceftriaxone intravenously. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an allergic reaction?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates the nurse should decrease the infusion rate?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B lipid complex via intermittent IV bolus to a client who has infective endocarditis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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